RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

Total Questions : 44

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Question 1: View

A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Decreased bowel sounds 6 hours post-hysterectomy are expected due to anesthesia and surgical manipulation, typically resolving within 24-48 hours. Urinary output of 75 mL in 3 hours is more urgent. Assuming bowel sounds require reporting risks overlooking critical renal issues, potentially delaying intervention in postoperative care.

Choice B reason: Urinary output of 75 mL in 3 hours (25 mL/hour) is below the expected 30-50 mL/hour, indicating potential renal compromise or obstruction post-hysterectomy, requiring immediate reporting. This ensures timely intervention, critical for preventing acute kidney injury, ensuring fluid balance, and supporting recovery in postoperative clients.

Choice C reason: A pain level of 4 is moderate and manageable with routine analgesics, not requiring immediate provider reporting compared to low urinary output. Assuming pain is urgent risks misprioritizing, potentially delaying critical interventions for renal issues, essential for ensuring comprehensive postoperative care and client stability.

Choice D reason: Scant dark red drainage is expected 6 hours post-hysterectomy, indicating minor surgical oozing, not requiring immediate reporting. Low urinary output is priority. Assuming drainage is concerning risks diverting focus from renal complications, critical for preventing kidney injury and ensuring safe recovery in postoperative clients.


Question 2: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion. For which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse monitor the client?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Urine output of 20 mL/hr is below the desired 30 mL/hr during magnesium sulfate therapy, indicating potential toxicity or renal issues, not a therapeutic effect. Absence of eclampsia is the goal. Monitoring for low output risks missing seizure prevention, critical for maternal safety in preeclampsia management.

Choice B reason: Fetal heart rate of 116/min is within normal (110-160/min) but not a direct therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which prevents seizures. Absence of eclampsia is key. Assuming heart rate is the focus risks overlooking maternal neurological status, critical for ensuring seizure prevention in preeclampsia treatment.

Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 150/92 mm Hg, while elevated, is not the primary therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which targets seizure prevention, not hypertension. Absence of eclampsia is priority. Focusing on blood pressure risks neglecting seizure monitoring, critical for maternal safety in preeclampsia management with magnesium.

Choice D reason: Absence of eclampsia (seizures) is the primary therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, stabilizing neuronal excitability, preventing life-threatening convulsions. Monitoring this ensures maternal safety, critical for preventing neurological damage, supporting fetal well-being, and guiding therapy adjustments in high-risk obstetric care.


Question 3: View

A nurse is caring for a child who has a hip spica cast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A reason: A semi-sitting position for meals is impractical in a hip spica cast, risking discomfort or aspiration; turning every 2 hours prevents pressure injuries. Assuming semi-sitting is correct risks complications, critical to avoid in ensuring safe positioning and care for children in spica casts.

Choice B reason: Maintaining dependent lower extremities increases edema risk in a hip spica cast; turning every 2 hours promotes circulation. Assuming dependent positioning is correct risks swelling, critical to prevent in ensuring proper cast care and comfort for children with hip spica casts.

Choice C reason: A bedside commode is unsuitable for a hip spica cast, which covers the pelvis; bedpans are used. Turning every 2 hours is key. Assuming a commode is appropriate risks impracticality, critical to avoid in ensuring proper toileting and care in spica cast management.

Choice D reason: Turning every 2 hours prevents pressure ulcers and promotes circulation in a child with a hip spica cast, critical for skin integrity and comfort. This ensures proper cast care, reducing complications, supporting healing, and maintaining safety in pediatric orthopedic management.


Question 4: View

A nurse is planning care for a client during Ramadan who is a devout Muslim. Which of the following actions should the nurse include regarding the client’s diet?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pork is prohibited in Islam (haram), and including it during Ramadan violates dietary laws, disrespecting the client’s faith. Scheduling meals after sundown respects fasting. Offering pork risks cultural insensitivity, potentially causing distress, critical to avoid in ensuring respectful, patient-centered care during Ramadan.

Choice B reason: Avoiding red meat is not a Ramadan or Islamic requirement; Muslims may consume halal red meat after sundown. Scheduling meals post-sundown is key. Assuming red meat avoidance risks unnecessary dietary restriction, potentially affecting nutrition, critical to prevent in supporting client health during fasting periods.

Choice C reason: Waiting 1 hour after dairy to serve poultry is not an Islamic dietary rule; it may reflect kosher practices. Scheduling meals after sundown aligns with Ramadan fasting. This assumption risks cultural confusion, delaying meals, critical to avoid in ensuring timely nutrition for Muslim clients during Ramadan.

Choice D reason: Scheduling meals after sundown respects Ramadan fasting, when Muslims eat during non-daylight hours (iftar). This ensures nutritional needs are met, critical for health, maintaining cultural sensitivity, and supporting client comfort, aligning with patient-centered care principles for devout Muslims observing Ramadan in healthcare settings.


Question 5: View

A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Discussing preferences for repositioning schedules is secondary to assessing physical ability in stroke clients, who may have hemiplegia. Evaluating ability ensures safety. Assuming preferences are priority risks unsafe repositioning, potentially causing falls, critical to avoid in ensuring safe mobility and care for stroke patients.

Choice B reason: Evaluating the client’s ability to assist with repositioning is critical post-stroke to assess motor function, ensuring safe technique and preventing injury. This informs whether assistive devices or additional staff are needed, essential for reducing fall risk, promoting recovery, and tailoring care to the client’s physical capacity.

Choice C reason: Repositioning without assistive devices is unsafe for stroke clients with potential weakness or paralysis, risking falls or strain. Evaluating ability is priority. Assuming no devices are needed risks injury, critical to prevent in ensuring safe handling, supporting recovery, and maintaining safety in stroke rehabilitation care.

Choice D reason: Raising side rails ensures safety but is secondary to evaluating the client’s ability to assist, which guides repositioning technique. Assuming rails are the first step risks overlooking physical capacity, potentially leading to unsafe repositioning, critical to avoid in preventing falls and ensuring safe care for stroke clients.


Question 6: View

A nurse is preparing to witness a client’s signature on a consent form for a colon resection. The nurse should recognize that which of the following information should be provided to the client by the provider before signing the form? (Select all that apply)

Explanation

Choice A reason: Potential complications must be explained before consent to ensure the client understands risks like bleeding or infection, supporting informed decision-making. This is legally required, critical for ethical care, preventing misunderstandings, and ensuring the client is fully aware of colon resection’s potential adverse outcomes before signing.

Choice B reason: Possible alternative treatments, like medication or less invasive procedures, must be discussed to ensure informed consent, allowing the client to weigh options. This is essential for autonomy, critical for ethical practice, ensuring clients understand all viable paths before agreeing to a colon resection procedure.

Choice C reason: An explanation of the procedure, including what a colon resection entails, is required for informed consent, ensuring the client understands the surgical process. This promotes transparency, critical for legal and ethical standards, enabling informed decisions and reducing anxiety before signing the consent form.

Choice D reason: Expected outcomes, such as symptom relief or recovery timeline, must be provided to clarify the procedure’s benefits, ensuring informed consent. This is crucial for setting realistic expectations, supporting client autonomy, and ensuring understanding of colon resection’s purpose, critical for ethical surgical consent processes.

Choice E reason: Cost of the procedure is not typically required for informed consent, which focuses on medical risks, benefits, and alternatives. Assuming cost is necessary risks diverting focus from clinical information, potentially overwhelming the client, critical to avoid in ensuring informed consent for colon resection surgery.


Question 7: View

A nurse is speaking with the caregiver of a client who has Alzheimer’s disease. The caregiver states, “Providing constant care is very stressful and is affecting all areas of my life.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Discussing communication methods addresses client behaviors but not the caregiver’s stress from constant care. A daycare program offers respite. Focusing on communication risks neglecting caregiver well-being, potentially worsening burnout, critical to avoid in supporting caregivers of Alzheimer’s clients with high care demands.

Choice B reason: Suggesting antipsychotics for the client addresses behavior but not caregiver stress, and is inappropriate without medical evaluation. Daycare provides relief. Assuming medication is the solution risks unnecessary drug use, potentially causing side effects, critical to avoid in supporting caregiver health and client safety.

Choice C reason: Allowing the client time alone is unsafe for Alzheimer’s patients due to wandering risks and does not relieve caregiver stress. Daycare is effective. Assuming alone time helps risks client safety and caregiver burden, critical to prevent in ensuring comprehensive care for Alzheimer’s clients and caregivers.

Choice D reason: Assisting with a daycare program provides respite, reducing caregiver stress and preventing burnout while ensuring client safety. This intervention supports caregiver well-being, critical for sustained care quality, promoting mental health, and enabling effective management of Alzheimer’s disease in home settings with high care demands.


Question 8: View

A nurse is caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Aspirin is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease due to its antiplatelet and gastric irritant effects, risking bleeding or ulcer exacerbation. Acetaminophen is safer. Administering aspirin risks gastrointestinal hemorrhage, critical to avoid in ensuring safe pain management for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.

Choice B reason: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, irritates the gastric mucosa, worsening peptic ulcers and increasing bleeding risk, making it unsuitable. Acetaminophen is preferred. Administering ibuprofen risks ulcer perforation or bleeding, critical to prevent in ensuring safe headache relief for clients with a peptic ulcer history.

Choice C reason: Ketorolac, an NSAID, is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease due to its potent gastric irritant effects, risking ulcer aggravation or bleeding. Acetaminophen is safe. Administering ketorolac risks severe gastrointestinal complications, critical to avoid in providing safe pain management for clients with peptic ulcer history.

Choice D reason: Acetaminophen is safe for headache relief in peptic ulcer clients, lacking gastric irritant effects, avoiding risks of bleeding or ulcer worsening. Administering it ensures effective pain management, critical for client comfort, preventing gastrointestinal complications, and supporting safe care in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of depression and is experiencing a situational crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Confirming the client’s perception of the crisis is the first step, establishing trust and understanding their emotional state, critical for effective intervention. This guides tailored support, essential for addressing depression in a situational crisis, ensuring therapeutic communication, and promoting coping in mental health care settings.

Choice B reason: Teaching relaxation techniques is useful but secondary to understanding the client’s crisis perception, which informs interventions. Assuming techniques are first risks misaligned support, potentially escalating distress, critical to avoid in ensuring effective crisis management for clients with depression experiencing situational stressors.

Choice C reason: Identifying strengths supports coping but follows confirming the client’s crisis perception, which sets the therapeutic foundation. Prioritizing strengths risks overlooking the client’s immediate emotional needs, potentially delaying effective intervention, critical to prevent in managing depression during a situational crisis in mental health care.

Choice D reason: Notifying a support person is secondary to understanding the client’s crisis perception, which guides initial intervention. Assuming notification is first risks bypassing the client’s perspective, potentially reducing trust, critical to avoid in ensuring client-centered care for depression in situational crisis management.


Question 10: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who practices Orthodox Judaism and is observing the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Unleavened bread (matzah) is required during Passover in Orthodox Judaism, as leavened products are prohibited. Providing it respects dietary laws, critical for cultural sensitivity, ensuring nutritional needs, and supporting client comfort, aligning with patient-centered care principles during religious observances in healthcare settings.

Choice B reason: Chicken with cream sauce is prohibited during Passover, as Orthodox Jews avoid mixing meat and dairy (kosher laws). Unleavened bread is appropriate. Serving this risks dietary violation, causing distress, critical to avoid in ensuring culturally sensitive care for clients observing Passover in healthcare settings.

Choice C reason: Fish with fins and scales is kosher and permitted during Passover, not to be avoided. Unleavened bread aligns with Passover rules. Assuming fish avoidance risks unnecessary restriction, potentially affecting nutrition, critical to prevent in supporting dietary adherence for Orthodox Jewish clients during Passover.

Choice D reason: Lamb is permitted during Passover if kosher, not universally avoided. Unleavened bread is a dietary staple. Assuming lamb avoidance risks misaligned care, potentially causing nutritional or cultural issues, critical to avoid in ensuring respectful, adherent care for Orthodox Jewish clients observing Passover.


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