Nur3380 applying the nursing process to alterations in health exam 1
Nur3380 applying the nursing process to alterations in health exam 1
Total Questions : 75
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreThe nurse is caring for a client being treated for fluid volume excess. Which assessment finding indicates that treatment has been effective?
Explanation
A. Respiratory rate 24/min: A respiratory rate of 24/min indicates tachypnea, which can be a sign of ongoing fluid volume excess or other complications. This does not show effective treatment.
B. Blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg: While this blood pressure is within the higher range of normal, it does not specifically indicate effective treatment of fluid volume excess. Blood pressure alone is not a reliable indicator of fluid status.
C. Total urinary output 700 mL in 24 hours: A urinary output of 700 mL in 24 hours is below the normal range (typically 800-2000 mL per day) and suggests that the fluid volume excess has not been effectively treated. Adequate urinary output is a key indicator of effective fluid management.
D. Weight loss of 4 lb in 24 hours: A weight loss of 4 lb in 24 hours is a clear indicator that the client has lost excess fluid, which is the desired outcome in treating fluid volume excess. This demonstrates that the treatment has been effective in reducing fluid retention
A client with leukemia is expected to require chemotherapy for several months. Which type of IV line will best meet the client's needs?
Explanation
A. Intraosseous line: Intraosseous lines are used for emergency situations when peripheral access is not available, and are not suitable for long-term chemotherapy administration due to the risk of complications and discomfort.
B. Intrathecal catheter: Intrathecal catheters are used for delivering medication directly into the spinal canal. They are not suitable for systemic chemotherapy administration, which requires vascular access.
C. Peripheral intravenous line: Peripheral intravenous lines are typically used for short-term treatments. They are not ideal for long-term chemotherapy because they need frequent replacement, and the veins can become damaged from prolonged use of chemotherapeutic agents.
D. Subcutaneous implantable port: A subcutaneous implantable port is the best option for long-term chemotherapy. It is implanted under the skin, reducing the risk of infection, and provides a stable and reliable access point for repeated treatments over several months.
The nurse is rounding on a client who is 12 hours postoperative. Upon assessment, the client becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and restless and complains of sudden chest pain. Which postoperative complication should the nurse conclude that the client most likely experienced?
Explanation
A. Pulmonary embolism: Pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, which aligns with the client's symptoms. It is a common postoperative complication due to immobility and potential hypercoagulability.
B. Pneumonia: Pneumonia typically develops more gradually and presents with fever, productive cough, and respiratory distress rather than sudden chest pain and hemodynamic instability. It is less likely in the immediate postoperative period.
C. Hemorrhage: Hemorrhage would also cause tachycardia and hypotension, but it would typically present with symptoms such as excessive bleeding, swelling at the surgical site, and pallor rather than chest pain.
D. Myocardial infarction: While myocardial infarction can cause chest pain, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is less likely in this scenario compared to a pulmonary embolism, given the timing and nature of the symptoms in the immediate postoperative period.
A nurse is admitting a client who reports persistent nausea, vomiting, and weakness for three days. The client has dry oral mucous membranes, weak peripheral pulses, and decreased skin turgor. What additional assessment findings should the nurse identify as manifestations related to the fluid imbalance? (Select All That Apply)
Explanation
A. Muscle cramps: Muscle cramps can occur due to electrolyte imbalances, such as low potassium, which are common in states of dehydration and fluid imbalance.
B. Bradycardia: Bradycardia is not typically associated with dehydration or fluid imbalance. Dehydration usually causes an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) as the body tries to maintain adequate circulation.
C. Concentrated urine: Concentrated urine is a common sign of dehydration as the kidneys conserve water, leading to reduced urine output and higher urine concentration.
D. Tachycardia: Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism in response to decreased fluid volume, as the heart pumps faster to maintain adequate blood flow and blood pressure.
E. Increased thirst: Increased thirst is a natural response to dehydration as the body signals the need for more fluid intake to correct the fluid imbalance.
A client with dry skin and mucous membranes is weak, has orthostatic blood pressure changes, and has decreased urine output. The serum osmolality is 290 mOsm/kg. What IV fluid should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
Explanation
A. 0.45% Sodium Chloride: This is a hypotonic solution, which is not appropriate for a client with normal serum osmolality (290 mOsm/kg). It may cause fluid shifts that are not desirable in this context.
B. 10% dextrose in water: This hypertonic solution is generally used for providing calories rather than correcting fluid imbalance and is not suitable for initial rehydration in this scenario.
C. 5% dextrose in water: This solution is isotonic in the bag but becomes hypotonic in the body. It is not the best choice for rehydrating a client with normal serum osmolality and significant fluid loss.
D. 0.9% Sodium Chloride: This isotonic solution is appropriate for rehydration in a client with normal serum osmolality. It helps restore extracellular fluid volume without causing fluid shifts, making it ideal for this situation.
The nurse is assessing a client in the post-anesthesia care unit. The client's vital signs are T 98°F, P 106, R 24, and BP 88/40. The client is awake and oriented x 3 and the skin is pale and damp. The client denies complaints of pain. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Explanation
A. Start an IV of DSNS with 40 mEq KCI at 125 mL/hr: Starting an IV is important but may not be the immediate first step. The client's symptoms suggest hypotension, likely due to hypovolemia, which needs immediate positional intervention before fluid administration.
B. Elevate the feet and lower the head: This position, known as the Trendelenburg position, helps increase venous return to the heart and can quickly improve blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. It is an immediate intervention for hypotension.
C. Call the surgeon and report the vital signs: While important, calling the surgeon is not the first intervention. Immediate action to stabilize the client's condition is necessary before notifying the healthcare provider.
D. Monitor the vital signs every 15 minutes: Monitoring is important, but it is not an immediate intervention. The nurse must first address the client's low blood pressure and symptoms of hypoperfusion before continuing regular monitoring.
Which menu choice indicates that a client understands their nurse's teaching about the best dietary sources of iron?
Explanation
A. Steak and scrambled eggs: Steak and scrambled eggs are excellent sources of heme iron, which is highly bioavailable and easily absorbed by the body. This choice reflects a good understanding of dietary sources rich in iron.
B. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice: While orange juice can enhance iron absorption due to its vitamin C content, cornmeal muffins are not a significant source of iron. This option does not indicate a strong understanding of iron-rich foods.
C. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese: Both cantaloupe and cottage cheese are low in iron content. This menu choice does not reflect an understanding of the best dietary sources of iron.
D. Strawberry pancakes and coffee: Strawberries have some iron, but not in significant amounts, and coffee can inhibit iron absorption due to its polyphenol content. This choice does not indicate an understanding of iron-rich foods.
A nurse is preparing the skin of a client scheduled for cardiac surgery. What is the purpose of surgical skin cleaning preparation?
Explanation
A. Assessing the surgical site before surgery: While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the primary purpose of skin cleaning preparation. The focus is on reducing infection risk.
B. Providing comfort for the client: Comfort may be a secondary benefit, but it is not the main goal of surgical skin cleaning. The primary purpose is to reduce infection risk.
C. Reducing the risk of post-operative wound infection: Surgical skin cleaning preparation is aimed at minimizing the number of microorganisms on the skin to reduce the risk of postoperative wound infections. This is the key reason for preoperative skin preparation.
D. Sterilizing the skin for easier scalpel cutting: Skin cannot be completely sterilized, and the ease of scalpel cutting is not related to the cleanliness of the skin. The goal is infection control, not making the skin easier to cut.
A client with acute pain is prescribed a sustained-release opioid that is administered every 12 hours. After 6 hours, the client complains of increasing pain that is rated as 9/10. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate to address the client's pain?
Explanation
A. Teach the client a relaxation technique to use until the next dose is due: While relaxation techniques can be helpful in managing pain, they are not sufficient for severe pain rated 9/10. The client requires more immediate pharmacological intervention.
B. Obtain an order for an immediate-release opioid for breakthrough pain: This is the most appropriate action. Immediate-release opioids are specifically used to manage breakthrough pain in clients on sustained-release opioid therapy. It addresses the client's severe pain effectively and promptly.
C. Explain to the client that the medication being administered lasts for 12 hours: Simply explaining the duration of the medication does not address the client's current severe pain. Effective pain management requires action, not just education.
D. Assess the client's vital signs and administer the next dose of opioids early: Administering the next dose early can lead to inappropriate dosing schedules and potential overdose. It is important to follow the prescribed dosing regimen and manage breakthrough pain appropriately.
A nurse is assessing a client 12 hours following an emergency abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding requires prompt collaboration with the primary health care provider?
Explanation
A. Abdomen soft, surgical dressing has scant amount of old drainage: A soft abdomen and minimal old drainage from the surgical dressing are expected findings postoperatively. They do not indicate an immediate concern that requires prompt action.
B. Client ambulating with minimal assistance, complaints of occasional nausea: Ambulation and occasional nausea are common and generally expected postoperatively. These findings do not require urgent collaboration with the healthcare provider.
C. Crackles bilaterally in bases of lungs, has incisional pain: Crackles in the lungs can indicate fluid accumulation or atelectasis, which may lead to pneumonia or other respiratory complications. This finding, especially combined with recent surgery, requires prompt evaluation and intervention.
D. Temperature 99.4°F (37.4°C), pulse 100 bpm, bowel sounds present: A slightly elevated temperature and increased pulse are common after surgery. The presence of bowel sounds is a positive sign indicating the return of gastrointestinal function. These findings are not immediately concerning.
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