A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old male client admitted to the Surgical unit after having a total right knee replacement.
The nurse reviews the client's nursing note, vital signs, and medication administration record (MAR). Based on the findings, which medication is appropriate for the client?
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options regarding the post-operative client:
The nurse should understand that
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}
The correct answer is Choice B. Choice A rationale: Ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting. The client denies nausea and vomiting, so this medication is not necessary at this time.
Choice B rationale: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is appropriate for managing mild pain, which the client reports as 2 out of 10 on the pain scale. This medication effectively alleviates mild pain without significant side effects, making it suitable for the client’s current condition.
Choice C rationale: Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen (Norco) is a combination of an opioid and acetaminophen used for moderate to severe pain. Since the client reports only mild pain (2 out of 10), this stronger medication is not warranted and could cause unnecessary side effects.
Choice D rationale: Melatonin is used to help with sleep. The client does not report any issues with sleep, so administering this medication is not relevant to the current situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is not used for treating opioid use disorder. It is specifically indicated for the acute treatment of migraines.
Choice B rationale
Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a selective serotonin receptor agonist used for the treatment of migraines. It works by constricting blood vessels in the brain and reducing substances that trigger headache pain and symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is not classified as a general analgesic but is specifically used for migraine relief.
Choice D rationale
Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is not used for all of the above purposes. Its primary indication is for the treatment of migraines. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Aspirin is a first-generation NSAID that reduces inflammation and pain. It works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which results in decreased production of prostaglandins.
Choice B rationale
Dimenhydrinate is an antihistamine used to prevent and treat nausea, vomiting, and dizziness caused by motion sickness. It is not considered an NSAID.
Choice C rationale
Cetirizine is an antihistamine used to relieve allergy symptoms. It is not considered an NSAID.
Choice D rationale
Celecoxib is a second-generation NSAID that selectively inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). It is not a first-generation NSAID.
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