A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.Which of the following is a therapeutic use of this medication?

This medication prevents venous thrombosis.

This medication prevents angina pectoris.

This medication is to treat bradycardia.

This medication is to treat hypertension.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent venous thrombosis and thromboembolic events by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

Choice B rationale

Warfarin is not used to prevent angina pectoris, which is typically managed with nitrates, beta-blockers, or calcium channel blockers.

Choice C rationale

Warfarin is not used to treat bradycardia, which is usually managed with medications like atropine or pacemaker implantation.

Choice D rationale

Warfarin is not used to treat hypertension. Antihypertensive medications such as ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, or diuretics are used for this purpose.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A receptor antagonist blocks the effects of normal cellular functions by binding to receptor sites and preventing endogenous substances (like hormones or neurotransmitters) from activating those receptors.

Choice B rationale

Receptor antagonists do not accelerate hormones attaching to cell receptor sites; they prevent this process by blocking the receptors.

Choice C rationale

Receptor antagonists do not minimize the risk of other medications becoming toxic. They specifically block the action of certain endogenous substances.

Choice D rationale

Receptor antagonists do not increase the action of cells; rather, they inhibit or block the usual effects.

A. Opioid toxicity triad. B. Orthostatic hypotension. C. Hypertension. D. Abstinence syndrome.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Opioid toxicity triad includes symptoms of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma. These symptoms are indicative of a morphine sulfate overdose.

Choice B rationale

Orthostatic hypotension is a form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice C rationale

Hypertension is high blood pressure. It is not related to opioid toxicity.

Choice D rationale

Abstinence syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in intake of medications or recreational drugs. It is not the appropriate complication for the client's presentation. .

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.Which of the following is a therapeutic use of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client about a medication that has a receptor antagonist effect.Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client in the intensive care unit has a presentation of pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and coma after overdosing on morphine sulfate (Astramorph). Which of the following is the appropriate complication based on the client's presentation?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the hospital.Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate to prepare for this client to further manage the client's DVT?

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