A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old male client admitted to the surgical unit after having a total right knee replacement.
The nurse reviews the client's nursing note, vital signs, and medication administration record (MAR). Based on the findings, which medication is considered an anti-emetic?
Ondansetron (Zofran).
Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Prochlorperazine (Compazine).
Morphine Sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Ondansetron (Zofran) is an anti-emetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B rationale
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic and antipyretic medication used to relieve pain and reduce fever, but it is not an anti-emetic.
Choice C rationale
Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is an anti-psychotic and anti-emetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, as well as certain mental/mood disorders.
Choice D rationale
Morphine Sulfate is an opioid analgesic used to relieve moderate to severe pain but does not have anti-emetic properties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Celecoxib does not inhibit the histamine response. Histamine is involved in allergic reactions, and celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that targets specific enzymes involved in inflammation.
Choice B rationale
Celecoxib specifically inhibits COX-2, an enzyme involved in the inflammation pathway. This selective inhibition helps reduce inflammation and pain without significantly affecting COX-1, which is protective for the stomach lining.
Choice C rationale
COX-1 is not the primary target of celecoxib. Inhibition of COX-1 can lead to gastrointestinal side effects, which celecoxib aims to minimize by selectively inhibiting COX-2 instead.
Choice D rationale
Celecoxib does not inhibit beta receptors. Beta receptors are involved in cardiovascular responses, and beta blockers are used for conditions like hypertension, not inflammation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale
Withholding the medication and notifying the provider is the appropriate intervention when a client's blood pressure is significantly low, such as 80/60 mmHg. Administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker, in this scenario could further lower the blood pressure, causing more harm. The provider needs to be informed to reassess the treatment plan.
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