A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old male client admitted to the surgical unit after having a total right knee replacement.
The nurse reviews the client's nursing note, vital signs, and medication administration record (MAR). Based on the findings, which medication is considered an anti-emetic?
Ondansetron (Zofran).
Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Prochlorperazine (Compazine).
Morphine Sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Ondansetron (Zofran) is an anti-emetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice B rationale
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an analgesic and antipyretic medication used to relieve pain and reduce fever, but it is not an anti-emetic.
Choice C rationale
Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is an anti-psychotic and anti-emetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, as well as certain mental/mood disorders.
Choice D rationale
Morphine Sulfate is an opioid analgesic used to relieve moderate to severe pain but does not have anti-emetic properties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in CHF patients. However, it can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Since the client is already experiencing muscle spasms and has low calcium levels, additional diuretic therapy could worsen these symptoms.
Choice B rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and heart rate in CHF patients. While beneficial for blood pressure control, it does not address the immediate issue of muscle spasms and constipation the client is experiencing.
Choice C rationale: Potassium chloride is indicated to address potential hypokalemia, which may be causing the client's muscle spasms. CHF patients on diuretics often experience low potassium levels, so supplementation is crucial to prevent complications and alleviate symptoms.
Choice D rationale: Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic, useful for pain and fever management. However, it does not address the client's reported muscle spasms, which are likely related to electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to medications, including lamotrigine. It is characterized by widespread skin necrosis and mucous membrane involvement. Hospitalization is required to manage the symptoms and prevent complications such as infections and organ failure.
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