A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.
The instructor is describing which of the following?

Initial phase of treatment.

Continuation phase of treatment.

Directly observed therapy.

Adherence evaluation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

The initial phase of treatment in tuberculosis management involves the first few weeks of intensive drug therapy when the goal is to reduce the bacterial load and prevent drug resistance. During this phase, the client typically takes multiple medications, but there is no requirement for direct observation by a healthcare provider.

Choice B rationale:

The continuation phase of treatment occurs after the initial phase in tuberculosis management. It focuses on preventing relapse and the complete eradication of the bacteria. During this phase, the client takes fewer medications, but there is no direct observation of medication administration.

Choice C rationale:

Directly observed therapy (DOT) is a strategy used in tuberculosis treatment where a healthcare provider or trained observer directly watches the client take their medications. This is particularly important to ensure adherence and prevent drug resistance. The description in the question aligns with the practice of DOT.

Choice D rationale:

Adherence evaluation refers to assessing how well a client follows their treatment plan, but it doesn't necessarily involve observing medication administration. While adherence evaluation is essential, the scenario described in the question specifically mentions the client demonstrating medication intake in front of a nurse, which corresponds to DOT.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Antiviral drugs are metabolized in the liver, and hepatic impairment can affect the metabolism and elimination of these drugs. Therefore, the nurse should administer antiviral therapy cautiously to clients with hepatic impairment to prevent potential drug toxicity. Hepatic impairment can alter the pharmacokinetics of antiviral drugs, leading to increased drug levels in the bloodstream.

Choice B rationale:

Renal impairment is not typically a contraindication for antiviral therapy. While some medications may require dose adjustments in patients with renal impairment, it is not a general concern for antiviral drugs. The primary organ responsible for the metabolism of antiviral drugs is the liver.

Choice C rationale:

Diabetes and hypertension are chronic medical conditions that are not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. These conditions do not significantly impact the pharmacokinetics or pharmacodynamics of antiviral drugs. Therefore, they are not primary factors to consider when administering antiviral therapy.

Choice D rationale:

Hypertension, like diabetes, is not directly related to the administration of antiviral therapy. Antiviral drugs primarily interact with the liver's metabolic pathways, and hypertension does not have a significant impact on drug metabolism.

A. Hemolytic anemia. B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. C. Anemia of chronic kidney disease. D. Hypertension.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Hemolytic anemia Hemolytic anemia is a contraindication for the use of ferrous sulfate, which is an iron supplement. Iron can exacerbate hemolysis in individuals with certain types of hemolytic anemia, leading to further breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, the nurse should withhold the drug and consult with the primary healthcare provider to explore alternative treatments.

Choice B rationale:

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is not a direct contraindication for ferrous sulfate. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron-deficiency anemia, and vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a separate condition that requires different treatments. These two conditions are not typically interrelated in terms of treatment.

Choice C rationale:

Anemia of chronic kidney disease Anemia of chronic kidney disease is a condition where the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. While ferrous sulfate may not be the first-line treatment for this type of anemia, it is not a strict contraindication. The decision to use iron supplements would depend on the individual patient's needs and the primary healthcare provider's recommendations.

Choice D rationale:

Hypertension Hypertension is not a contraindication for ferrous sulfate use. While patients with high blood pressure should be monitored closely, iron supplementation does not directly affect blood pressure regulation. The nurse should consider potential interactions with other medications the client may be taking, but hypertension alone is not a reason to withhold ferrous sulfate.

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A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.The instructor is describing which of the following?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer antiviral therapy.The nurse integrates knowledge of this therapy, administering the drugs cautiously to clients with which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is prescribed ferrous sulfate.Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client's medical record.The nurse would withhold the drug and contact the primary health care provider if the client's history revealed which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nursing instructor is describing a situation in which a client with tuberculosis periodically visits his primary health care provider and demonstrates taking his medication in front of the nurse.
The instructor is describing which of the following?