Which of the following best describes neologism?
Meaningless rhythm of words.
Roundabout.
Made up words.
Repeating of another's words.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Meaningless rhythm of words. This describes word salad, a disorganized speech pattern where words are strung together without logical connection, often seen in schizophrenia or severe psychosis.
B. Roundabout. This refers to circumstantial speech, where an individual provides excessive, unnecessary details before eventually arriving at the main point. This is commonly seen in mania, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), or cognitive impairment.
C. Made-up words. Neologisms are newly invented words or phrases that have no meaning to others but may carry personal significance to the individual. This is frequently observed in schizophrenia, psychotic disorders, or neurological conditions like aphasia.
D. Repeating of another's words. This describes echolalia, a speech disturbance where a person repeats words or phrases spoken by others, often seen in autism spectrum disorder (ASD), schizophrenia, or catatonia.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Mesolimbic pathway is responsible for reward, motivation, and emotion. In schizophrenia, hyperactivity of this pathway leads to positive symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking.
B. Nigrostriatal pathway regulates motor control. Dopamine blockade in this pathway leads to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors, rigidity, and tardive dyskinesia, which are side effects of first-generation antipsychotics (typical antipsychotics).
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway controls prolactin secretion. Dopamine inhibits prolactin release, so blocking D2 receptors with antipsychotics leads to hyperprolactinemia, causing gynecomastia, galactorrhea, and menstrual irregularities.
D. Mesocortical pathway is responsible for cognition, motivation, and emotional regulation. In schizophrenia, hypoactivity of this pathway is linked to negative symptoms such as apathy, anhedonia, social withdrawal, and cognitive impairment. Antipsychotics that block dopamine further worsen these symptoms, making negative symptoms more difficult to treat.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, which has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) but a lower risk of metabolic syndrome compared to second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Aripiprazole (Abilify) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic with a lower risk of metabolic side effects. It has a partial dopamine agonist mechanism, which makes it less likely to cause weight gain, dyslipidemia, or glucose intolerance.
C. Clozapine (Clozaril) has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome among antipsychotics. It is associated with significant weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia, and an increased risk of diabetes. Regular metabolic monitoring (weight, blood glucose, lipids) is essential for patients taking clozapine.
D. Lurasidone (Latuda) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower metabolic risk compared to other atypical antipsychotics. It is generally considered weight-neutral and has minimal effects on glucose and lipid metabolism.
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