In DiGeorge disease, what is the cause? (Select all that apply)
Lack of development of the thymus
B cells cannot mature
T cells cannot mature
Lack of development of the bursa
Correct Answer : A,C
Choice A reason: DiGeorge disease involves thymic hypoplasia or aplasia, impairing T-cell development. This is a primary cause, leading to immune deficiency, making it a correct choice for the condition’s etiology.
Choice B reason: B-cell maturation is generally preserved in DiGeorge disease, as it primarily affects T-cells due to thymic defects. T-cell issues are central, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Choice C reason: T cells cannot mature in DiGeorge disease due to thymic underdevelopment, causing severe immunodeficiency. This is a core feature of the syndrome, making it a correct choice for the cause.
Choice D reason: Humans lack a bursa; B-cell maturation occurs in bone marrow. DiGeorge affects the thymus and T-cells, not a nonexistent bursa, so this is incorrect for the cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Septic arthritis affects joints, causing joint-specific swelling and pain, but this patient’s symptoms center on a fracture site, suggesting bone involvement. Osteomyelitis better matches pain, swelling, and warmth over a bone wound, with fever and chills, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting multiple joints, typically hands and feet, not a single fracture site. This patient’s acute fever, localized bone pain, and wound-related symptoms point to osteomyelitis, not systemic arthritis, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Gout causes acute joint pain, often in the big toe, due to uric acid crystals, not bone infections. The patient’s fracture site pain, swelling, and systemic symptoms like fever align with osteomyelitis, not gout, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, matches the patient’s severe pain, swelling, warmth, and redness over a recent fracture site, with fever and chills. These are primary signs of bone infection post-trauma, making this the correct diagnosis and symptom description.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring urine output is critical in sepsis-induced DIC, as it reflects renal perfusion and organ function. Decreased output may indicate hypoperfusion or acute kidney injury from microthrombi, common in DIC, making this a priority assessment to guide fluid and supportive therapy.
Choice B reason: White blood cell count is relevant in sepsis but less specific for DIC progression. It indicates infection severity but does not directly assess DIC’s coagulopathy or organ impact, making it a lower-priority assessment compared to organ function indicators.
Choice C reason: Level of consciousness is a priority, as DIC can cause cerebral microthrombi or hemorrhage, leading to neurological changes. Altered consciousness signals potential brain involvement or systemic hypoperfusion, necessitating immediate intervention, making this a critical assessment in sepsis with DIC.
Choice D reason: Weight assessment is not a priority in acute sepsis with DIC, as it does not directly reflect coagulopathy or organ dysfunction. Fluid shifts may occur, but urine output and other vital signs are more immediate indicators, making this non-essential.
Choice E reason: Oxygen saturation is crucial, as DIC can impair pulmonary perfusion through microthrombi, causing hypoxemia. Sepsis also increases oxygen demand, and low saturation indicates respiratory compromise, making this a priority assessment to ensure adequate oxygenation.
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