The client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The client knows that this medication is used for diabetes but that it is also popular for weight loss. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
This drug is safe for the client who is pregnant
The drug impacts many factors including the natural hormone GLP-1 to increase insulin production
The drug is used for type 1 diabetes mellitus most of the time
The blood sugar does not need to be monitored as closely as other medication
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Semaglutide, a GLP-1 receptor agonist, is not considered safe in pregnancy due to limited data and potential fetal risks. Animal studies suggest possible teratogenicity, and it is typically avoided in pregnant patients with type 2 diabetes, making this statement inaccurate and irrelevant to its mechanism.
Choice B reason: Semaglutide mimics GLP-1, enhancing glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppressing glucagon release, slowing gastric emptying, and promoting satiety. These actions lower blood glucose and support weight loss in type 2 diabetes. This statement is accurate, as GLP-1-mediated insulin production is central to its mechanism of action.
Choice C reason: Semaglutide is primarily used for type 2 diabetes, not type 1, as it relies on functional beta cells to enhance insulin secretion. Type 1 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency, rendering GLP-1 agonists ineffective. This statement is inaccurate, as semaglutide is not indicated for type 1 diabetes.
Choice D reason: Semaglutide requires regular blood sugar monitoring, as hypoglycemia can occur, especially with concomitant insulin or sulfonylureas. Its glucose-lowering effects necessitate careful management to prevent adverse events. This statement is inaccurate, as monitoring remains critical to ensure safe and effective diabetes control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs), accounting for 70-90% of cases. This gram-negative bacillus, found in the gastrointestinal tract, ascends the urethra to the bladder, adhering to uroepithelial cells via fimbriae. Its prevalence in fecal flora and ability to colonize the urinary tract make it the primary pathogen.
Choice B reason: Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that can cause UTIs, particularly in catheterized or hospitalized patients, but it accounts for less than 5% of cases. It is more commonly associated with skin or bloodstream infections. Its lower prevalence in UTIs compared to E. coli makes it a less likely cause.
Choice C reason: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a gram-negative bacillus, is an opportunistic pathogen causing UTIs primarily in immunocompromised or catheterized patients. It accounts for less than 10% of UTIs. Its resistance to antibiotics and preference for nosocomial settings make it less common than E. coli in community-acquired infections.
Choice D reason: Klebsiella pneumoniae, another gram-negative bacillus, causes about 5-10% of UTIs, often in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. While it can adhere to urinary epithelium, its prevalence is significantly lower than E. coli, which dominates due to its ubiquitous presence in the gut and urogenital proximity.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is not the primary target of antidepressants like SSRIs or tricyclics. These drugs focus on monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine). GABAergic drugs, like benzodiazepines, treat anxiety, not depression. This statement is inaccurate, as antidepressants do not enhance GABA efficacy in the limbic system or cortex.
Choice B reason: SSRIs and tricyclics block reuptake of serotonin and/or norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft, increasing their availability to stimulate postsynaptic receptors. This enhances monoamine signaling, alleviating depressive symptoms. This statement is accurate, as reuptake inhibition is the shared mechanism across these antidepressant classes, targeting mood-regulating neurotransmitters.
Choice C reason: Dopamine receptor antagonism is not a mechanism of antidepressants but is associated with antipsychotics like haloperidol. While some antidepressants indirectly affect dopamine, it is not their primary action. This statement is inaccurate, as SSRIs and tricyclics focus on serotonin and norepinephrine, not dopamine receptor blockade.
Choice D reason: Antagonizing serotonin receptors would reduce serotonin signaling, counteracting antidepressant effects. SSRIs and tricyclics increase serotonin availability via reuptake inhibition, not receptor blockade. This statement is inaccurate, as blocking serotonin receptors is not a mechanism of action for these depression treatments.
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