The nurse is caring for a pediatric client who experienced a "greenstick" fracture. The client's mother asks the nurse what it means to have this type of fracture. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
This means that the bone broke all the way through, perpendicular to the shaft.
This means that the bone broke in a spiral pattern.
This means that the bone bent and only the outer arc of the bend broke.
This means that the broken bone ends splintered into smaller pieces.
The Correct Answer is C
A. This describes a transverse fracture, where the bone breaks completely across and perpendicular to the shaft. It does not describe a greenstick fracture.
B. A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting force, which results in a helical break. This is not a greenstick fracture.
C. A greenstick fracture occurs when the bone bends and cracks on the outer arc but does not break completely through. This type of fracture is more common in children because their bones are softer and more flexible.
D. This describes a comminuted fracture, where the bone breaks into several pieces. It does not match the description of a greenstick fracture.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administering a hypotonic solution would not be appropriate in this case. Hypotonic solutions can lower the blood pressure further and worsen the patient’s condition.
B. Administering a vasoconstrictor medication may increase blood pressure, but it is not the first-line treatment for dehydration or volume loss, which seems to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
C. Administering an isotonic solution intravenously is the most appropriate intervention. The patient is likely experiencing dehydration and hypotension due to fluid loss from exertion in the sun (possibly heat exhaustion). Isotonic fluids such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution are typically used to restore circulating volume and improve blood pressure.
D. Administering a hypertonic solution would be inappropriate, as it could increase the osmolarity of the blood and worsen dehydration, potentially causing fluid shifts that could lead to complications such as cellular dehydration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 50% Dextrose in Water (D50W) IV push is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL, indicating severe hypoglycemia. The rapid administration of D50W will quickly raise the blood glucose level and help restore consciousness.
B. Insulin Regular IV push would lower the blood glucose level, which is not appropriate in this situation where the client is hypoglycemic.
C. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion is a general fluid replacement solution, but it will not address the client's low blood glucose level.
D. 5% Dextrose continuous IV infusion is typically used for maintenance, but it would not act as quickly as D50W to correct severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
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