Your patient has a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and has been started on sertraline (Zoloft) 50mg daily. After taking the medication for 3 days, the patient says, "I don't think the medicine is working. I don't want to take it any longer." What is your best response?
"I'll let your doctor know, and he may order a different medication."
"These medications usually take a few weeks to bring about an improvement in your symptoms."
"It is important to eat a more balanced diet to help this medication work."
"The important thing now is getting more involved in patient activities."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: While it's important to communicate with the doctor, this does not provide immediate reassurance or information about the medication's typical onset of action.
Choice B reason: This is the most accurate response as SSRIs like sertraline (Zoloft) typically take several weeks to show full effects, and it's important for patients to understand this.
Choice C reason: While a balanced diet is important, it is not directly related to the effectiveness of sertraline in the short term.
Choice D reason: Encouraging involvement in activities is beneficial, but it does not address the patient's concern about the medication's effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: The ability to dress oneself is a basic ADL and is important for independence after discharge.
Choice B reason: Scheduling car maintenance is not considered a basic ADL; it is an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL), which is not typically assessed for depression-related ADLs.
Choice C reason: The ability to bathe oneself is another basic ADL that is crucial for self-care and should be assessed before discharge.
Choice D reason: Performing oral hygiene is a fundamental ADL and should be included in the assessment.
Choice E reason: Balancing a bank account is an IADL and, similar to choice B, is not typically part of the basic ADL assessment for a client with depression.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While all individuals can develop heart failure, an Asian male is not considered the highest risk group based on the available data.
Choice B reason: A Black female is at a higher risk for developing heart failure, especially due to factors like hypertension, diabetes, and certain socioeconomic factors³.
Choice C reason: A Hispanic female may have multiple risk factors for heart failure, but the prevalence and risk are not as high as in the Black female population³.
Choice D reason: A White male, while at risk for heart failure, does not have the highest risk when compared to a Black female with the same age and health conditions³.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.