Choice A: February 6-7 is incorrect. This is too late for the woman's fertile period, which occurs around the time of ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle¹.

Choice B:In a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day 14 (counting from the first day of the last menstrual period). Since the first day of the last period is January 8, day 14 falls on January 22. The fertile window consists of the five days leading up to ovulation and the day of ovulation (January 17–22), as sperm can survive in the reproductive tract for up to 5 days, and the egg remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.January 22-23 is the most fertile period, with ovulation occurring around January 22 and the egg remaining viable for fertilization on January 23.

Choice C: January 30-31 is incorrect. This is after the woman's fertile period, which ends about a day after ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle.

Choice D: January 14-15 corresponds to cycle days 7-8, which is too early for ovulation in a typical 28-day cycle. Ovulation generally occurs around day 14 (January 22). The follicular phase (the first half of the cycle) is when the follicles in the ovary mature, and estrogen levels rise to trigger ovulation. At this point (January 14-15), the egg is not yet released, and the uterus is still preparing for ovulation, making conception unlikely.

Choice A reason:

Nagele's rule for calculating the estimated date of confinement (EDC) involves subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. For February 13th, subtracting 3 months gives us November 13th, and adding 7 days gives us November 20th. This is the most accurate calculation for the estimated date of confinement.

Choice B reason:

This choice is not accurate according to Nagele's rule. Adding 7 days to November 13th would give November 20th, not November 27th.

Choice reason:

This choice is not accurate according to Nagele's rule. Adding 7 days to November 13th would give November 20th, not November 21st.

Choice D reason:

This choice is not accurate according to Nagele's rule. Subtracting 3 months from February 13th would give November 13th, not November 14th.

The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.

Choice A reason:

This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.

Choice B reason:

This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).

Choice C reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.

Choice D reason:

This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.

GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because providing the patient with handouts is not enough to ensure effective communication. The handouts may not be in the patient's preferred language or may use unfamiliar words or concepts. The nurse should also use other methods, such as interpreters, translators, or visual aids, to convey information to the patient.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because speaking quickly and efficiently may hinder the patient's comprehension and increase the risk of misunderstanding. The nurse should speak slowly and clearly, using simple and common words, and allow time for the patient to ask questions or clarify information.

Choice C reason: This is correct because assessing whether the patient understands the discussion is essential for effective communication and patient education. The nurse should use techniques such as teach-back, ask-me-3, or show-me to verify the patient's understanding and address any gaps or misconceptions.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because using maternity jargon may confuse the patient and create barriers to communication. The nurse should avoid using medical terms, abbreviations, or slang that the patient may not be familiar with. The nurse should explain any necessary terms in plain language and use examples or analogies to illustrate them.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because primary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is not associated with any underlying condition. It usually begins with the onset of menstruation and lasts for a few days. It does not cause pain during intercourse or infertility.

Choice B reason: This is correct because endometriosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside the uterus, such as on the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or pelvic organs. It causes chronic inflammation, scarring, and adhesions that can result in severe pain during menstruation and intercourse, as well as infertility.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because secondary dysmenorrhea is menstrual pain that is caused by an underlying condition, such as fibroids, pelvic inflammatory disease, or adenomyosis. It usually develops later in life and lasts longer than primary dysmenorrhea. It may or may not cause pain during intercourse or infertility, depending on the condition.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because PMS stands for premenstrual syndrome, which is a group of physical and emotional symptoms that occur before menstruation. It may include mood swings, irritability, bloating, headaches, or breast tenderness. It does not cause severe pain during menstruation or intercourse, or infertility.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because oral antiviral therapy is not effective for PID, which is caused by bacterial infection. Antiviral therapy is used for viral infections, such as herpes or HIV.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because antibiotics only until symptoms subside is not sufficient for PID, which can cause serious complications, such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or chronic pelvic pain. Antibiotics should be continued for the full course of treatment, usually 14 days, to ensure complete eradication of the infection.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because frequent pelvic examination to monitor the progress of healing is not recommended for PID, which can cause inflammation and irritation of the pelvic organs. Pelvic examination should be avoided or minimized to prevent further trauma or spread of the infection.

Choice D reason: This is correct because bed rest in a semi-Fowler position is beneficial for PID, which can cause fluid accumulation and pressure in the pelvic cavity. Bed rest helps to reduce inflammation and pain, while semi-Fowler position helps to drain the fluid and prevent abscess formation.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because venipuncture for blood work should be avoided on the affected arm. The mastectomy may have involved the removal of lymph nodes, which can impair the lymphatic drainage and increase the risk of lymphedema (swelling) in the arm. Venipuncture can cause further damage or infection to the arm.

Choice B reason: This is correct because the BP cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. The BP cuff can exert pressure on the arm and interfere with the blood and lymph flow. This can also increase the risk of lymphedema or pain in the arm.

Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the affected arm should not be held down close to the woman's side. The woman should be encouraged to elevate the arm above the level of the heart and perform gentle exercises to promote circulation and prevent stiffness. The arm should not be immobilized or restricted.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the affected arm should not be used for IV therapy. IV therapy can introduce fluids or medications into the arm that can affect the blood and lymph flow. It can also cause irritation or infection to the arm.

Choice A reason: This is incorrect because a donor embryo is not used in IVF-ET. A donor embryo is an embryo that was created from another couple's gametes and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the couple's own gametes to create an embryo.

Choice B reason: This is incorrect because it is dismissive and unprofessional. The nurse should respect the husband's curiosity and provide accurate and clear information about the procedure. The nurse should also address any concerns or questions that the couple may have.

Choice C reason: This is correct because it is a concise and accurate description of the IVF-ET procedure. The nurse explains the main steps and the purpose of the procedure in simple terms.

Choice D reason: This is incorrect because donor sperm is not used in IVF-ET. Donor sperm is sperm that was obtained from another man and donated to an infertile couple. IVF-ET uses the husband's own sperm to fertilize the wife's eggs.

The correct answer is d. Amenorrhea.

Choice A: Chadwick’s sign is a non-specific, early sign of pregnancy that is typically characterized by a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. The Chadwick sign can typically be observed as early as six to eight weeks after conception, and commonly disappears shortly after birth. However, it’s not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it on physical exam does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice B: Hegar’s sign is a non-specific indication of pregnancy that is characterized by the compressibility and softening of the cervical isthmus (i.e., the portion of the cervix between the uterus and the vaginal portion of the cervix). It typically presents between the fourth and sixth week of pregnancy and may be present until the 12th week of pregnancy. However, the Hegar sign is not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it does not exclude a potential pregnancy.

Choice C: A positive pregnancy test By 10 weeks, a home pregnancy test would almost certainly show a positive result if the woman is pregnant. This is because the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is produced by the placenta after implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall, would be present in high enough levels to be detected by the test. However, a positive pregnancy test is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy, but rather a probable one.

Choice D: Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is often considered the most presumptive sign of pregnancy. This is because it’s one of the first noticeable signs of pregnancy for many women. By 10 weeks of gestation, the woman would likely have missed two menstrual periods if she usually has regular cycles. However, while amenorrhea is a common early sign of pregnancy, it can also be caused by various other conditions or factors such as stress, significant weight loss or gain, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, a missed period should be followed up with a pregnancy test to confirm pregnancy.

Choice A reason: Vascular volume increases during pregnancy to meet the increased oxygen and nutrient demands of the fetus, not to compensate for decreased renal plasma flow. In fact, renal plasma flow increases by 50% to 80% during pregnancy to facilitate the excretion of metabolic wastes.

Choice B reason: Vascular volume increases during pregnancy to ensure adequate blood supply to the uterus and other organs, not to prevent maternal and fetal dehydration. Dehydration can occur due to vomiting, diarrhea, or inadequate fluid intake, and it can be prevented by drinking enough fluids and replacing electrolytes.

Choice C reason: Vascular volume increases during pregnancy to provide adequate perfusion of the placenta, which is the main organ of gas exchange and nutrient delivery for the fetus. The placenta receives about 10% of the maternal cardiac output at term.

Choice D reason: Vascular volume increases during pregnancy to support the growth and development of the fetus and the maternal tissues, not to eliminate metabolic wastes of the mother. Metabolic wastes are eliminated by the kidneys, lungs, skin, and gastrointestinal tract.