Ati maternity exam 1

Ati maternity exam 1

Total Questions : 50

Showing 10 questions Sign up for more
Question 1: View

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about newborn care with a client who is 2 hours postpartum.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing a newborn on the parent's stomach and covering with a warm blanket helps to regulate body temperature through skin-to-skin contact, which is essential for newborns, especially shortly after birth.

Choice B rationale

Rectal temperature checks are not recommended for newborns due to the risk of rectal perforation. Newborn temperatures are typically monitored using axillary (underarm) methods.

Choice C rationale

Keeping a newborn’s head covered helps to prevent heat loss, as a significant amount of body heat can be lost through the head. This practice is crucial in maintaining the newborn's body temperature.

Choice D rationale

Newborns should be kept away from drafts, including fans and air conditioning vents, to prevent them from becoming too cold. Keeping the bassinet away from these can help maintain a stable temperature.


Question 2: View

A nurse is caring for a client who might have a hydatidiform mole.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, it can be a normal finding or related to other conditions.

Choice B rationale

Excessive uterine enlargement is a common sign of a hydatidiform mole, as the abnormal growths cause the uterus to expand more than expected for the gestational age.

Choice C rationale

Rapidly dropping hCG levels are not associated with a hydatidiform mole. In fact, hCG levels are typically abnormally high in cases of a hydatidiform mole due to the overproduction of hCG by the trophoblastic tissue.

Choice D rationale

Fetal heart rate irregularities are not applicable in the case of a complete hydatidiform mole, as there is no viable fetus present.


Question 3: View

A nurse is reinforcing teaching of a newly licensed nurse about hypothyroidism during pregnancy.
Which of the following statements should the nurse reinforce in the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypothyroidism during pregnancy is associated with increased risks of metabolic disorders, including lipid and glucose metabolism disorders, which can affect both the mother and fetus.

Choice B rationale

hCG levels do not typically plateau in the first trimester; they continue to rise and peak around the 10th week of pregnancy before starting to decline.

Choice C rationale

Thyroid replacement dosing usually needs adjustment during pregnancy to meet the increased thyroid hormone requirements due to physiological changes and fetal development needs.

Choice D rationale

Antenatal fetal surveillance is generally required in the third trimester for hypothyroid pregnant clients to monitor fetal well-being, not during the first trimester.


Question 4: View

A nurse is collecting data on a 1-day-old newborn.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring follow-up?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A hymenal tag and white discharge on the genitalia are normal findings in newborn females, often due to maternal hormone exposure.

Choice B rationale

Edema on the scalp that crosses suture lines, known as caput succedaneum, is common and typically resolves on its own without intervention.

Choice C rationale

A heart murmur in a newborn can be normal, as many murmurs are benign and resolve as the newborn's circulation adjusts post-birth.

Choice D rationale

A large, deep sacral dimple above the gluteal cleft can be an indication of underlying spinal abnormalities, such as spina bifida, and requires further evaluation.


Question 5: View

A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has heavy vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation could be due to placental abruption or placenta previa, which necessitates immediate delivery to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Preparing for cesarean birth is crucial as it allows rapid delivery, reducing the risk of maternal hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia.

Choice B rationale

Performing a cervical examination can exacerbate bleeding in cases of placenta previa or placental abruption, making it unsafe. It can disturb the placenta and lead to further complications, so this option is not recommended.

Choice C rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia, not for managing heavy vaginal bleeding. Its use is unrelated to the immediate care of a client with heavy vaginal bleeding due to suspected placental issues.

Choice D rationale

Administering antibiotics is not the immediate priority in the case of heavy vaginal bleeding at 39 weeks of gestation. The focus should be on stabilizing the mother and preparing for delivery.


Question 6: View

A nurse is assisting in caring for a client who has pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus (PDM). Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as being associated with this condition?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

In pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus, insulin needs typically decrease during the first trimester due to increased insulin sensitivity and decreased food intake from nausea and vomiting, not an increased dosage.

Choice B rationale

Hypotension is not a typical finding associated with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, hyperglycemia and its complications, such as ketoacidosis, are more relevant concerns.

Choice C rationale

While weight gain is monitored in diabetic pregnancies, excessive weight gain is not a specific condition associated with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus. Weight management should be appropriate to avoid complications.

Choice D rationale

Polyphagia, or increased hunger, is a symptom associated with diabetes mellitus due to the body's inability to properly utilize glucose, leading to increased appetite and higher blood glucose levels.


Question 7: View

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is a classic sign of placenta previa, where the placenta is abnormally implanted in the lower uterine segment, covering the cervix, and causing bleeding without pain.

Choice B rationale

Threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding before 20 weeks of gestation with or without abdominal pain. At 36 weeks, the term would be inappropriate, and the symptoms do not match.

Choice C rationale

Abruptio placentae involves painful vaginal bleeding due to premature placental separation. The presence of pain differentiates it from placenta previa.

Choice D rationale

Preterm labor may present with contractions, cervical changes, and possible bleeding, but the key feature distinguishing it from placenta previa is the presence of uterine contractions and pain, which are absent in this scenario.


Question 8: View

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to undergo an amniotomy.
Which of the following is the priority nursing action following this procedure?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Checking the fetal heart rate pattern is the priority after an amniotomy. This procedure involves breaking the amniotic sac, which can lead to changes in the fetal heart rate. Immediate assessment ensures the fetus is not in distress.

Choice B rationale

Evaluating for signs of infection is essential post-procedure, but not the immediate priority. Infection signs develop over time, while fetal distress can occur immediately.

Choice C rationale

Observing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is important for identifying meconium-stained fluid, but it is not as immediately crucial as ensuring fetal well-being.

Choice D rationale

Taking the client's temperature can help monitor for infection later, but it is not the immediate concern following amniotomy. The primary concern is the fetal response.


Question 9: View

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who gave birth 1 hour ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider will prescribe?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to manage preeclampsia and prevent seizures, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It does not address the causes of excessive vaginal bleeding post-birth.

Choice B rationale

Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that helps reduce bleeding by preventing the breakdown of blood clots, making it suitable for managing postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice C rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to mature fetal lungs in preterm labor, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. It has no role in managing excessive bleeding after birth.

Choice D rationale

Terbutaline is a tocolytic used to delay preterm labor by relaxing uterine muscles. It is not used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and excessive vaginal bleeding.


Question 10: View

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a group of clients about genetic disorders.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the education reinforcement?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Recessive disorders do not manifest in every subsequent generation. They appear only when an individual inherits two copies of the recessive gene, one from each parent, making them less frequent in the population.

Choice B rationale

Single gene disorders are not collectively prevalent; they are relatively rare. They are caused by mutations in a single gene and are not always detectable without specific genetic testing.

Choice C rationale

Genetic disorders are not always passed down from one's biological predecessors. Some genetic disorders arise from new mutations that occur during the formation of eggs or sperm, or early in embryonic development.

Choice D rationale

Single gene disorders can indeed be traced through genetic lineage. By analyzing family histories and genetic testing, these disorders can often be identified and tracked across generations.


You just viewed 10 questions out of the 50 questions on the Ati maternity exam 1 Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams.

Subscribe Now

learning

Join Naxlex Nursing for nursing questions & guides! Sign Up Now