Med Surg Exam 7

ATI Med Surg Exam 7

Total Questions : 108

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Question 1: View

A client diagnosed with a sty of the eye asks what can be done for treatment. Which of the following options will the nurse provide to the client?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: An antifungal cream is not indicated for a sty, which is an infection of the eyelash follicle or sebaceous gland caused by bacteria.

Choice B Reason: This is the correct answer because warm compresses can help relieve pain and inflammation, and promote drainage of the sty.

Choice C Reason: Ice and cold compresses are not recommended for a sty, as they can constrict blood vessels and delay healing.

Choice D Reason: There is no need to test the other eye for vision loss, as a sty does not affect vision unless it is very large or obstructs the pupil.


Question 2: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. The nurse should identify which of the following is the priority finding to report to the provider?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: A heart rate of 122/min is elevated, but not life-threatening. It could be due to pain, anxiety, dehydration, or infection.

Choice B Reason: A urinary output of 25 ml/hr is low, but not critical. It could indicate fluid loss, kidney damage, or inadequate fluid resuscitation.

Choice C Reason: A pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is moderate, but not severe. It could be managed with analgesics and non-pharmacological interventions.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct answer because difficulty swallowing can indicate airway obstruction, inhalation injury, or edema of the throat. It can compromise breathing and require immediate intervention.


Question 3: View

A client arrives to the clinic with reports of progressive weakness in his lower extremities. Which of the following findings in the client's history is consistent with the client developing Guillain-Barre syndrome?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: A facial tumor is not related to Guillain-Barre syndrome, which is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves.

Choice B Reason: Pregnancy is not a risk factor for Guillain-Barre syndrome, although it can occur during or after pregnancy in rare cases.

Choice C Reason: A puncture wound 3 weeks ago is unlikely to cause Guillain-Barre syndrome, which usually follows a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct answer because cytomegalovirus is one of the common infections that can trigger Guillain-Barre syndrome. It can cause inflammation and damage to the myelin sheath that covers the nerves.


Question 4: View

The nurse is providing care for a client with a recent transverse colostomy. Which observation requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Soft pasty stool is normal for a transverse colostomy, as the stool has not reached the sigmoid colon where most of the water is absorbed.

Choice B Reason: This is the correct answer because purple discoloration of the stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis, which can lead to infection, perforation, or sepsis. It requires urgent intervention.

Choice C Reason: Stoma is beefy red is a normal finding for a healthy stoma, as it indicates adequate blood supply and healing.

Choice D Reason: There is skin excoriation around the stoma is a common complication of a colostomy, as the stool can irritate the skin. It can be managed with proper skin care and appliance fitting.


Question 5: View

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client following an automobile crash in which the client was unrestrained and thrown from the vehicle. When assessing the client, the nurse observes clear fluid draining from the client's nose. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Inserting a nasal swab to observe the fluid is not recommended because it can potentially harm the patient. If the fluid draining from the nose is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which is a clear, colorless body fluid found in the brain and spinal cord, inserting a swab could introduce bacteria into this sterile environment. This could lead to serious complications such as meningitis, an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

Choice B Reason: Suctioning the nose gently with a bulb syringe is also not recommended. Again, if the fluid is CSF, suctioning could potentially draw bacteria up into the nasal cavity and into the brain, leading to an increased risk of infection. Additionally, suctioning could potentially cause trauma to the nasal passages, leading to further complications.

Choice C Reason: Allowing the drainage to drip onto a sterile gauze pad is the safest option. This method avoids the risk of introducing infection into the CSF and allows for the fluid to be tested to confirm if it is CSF. If the fluid is indeed CSF, this could indicate a basilar skull fracture, a serious injury that requires immediate medical attention.

Choice D Reason: Inserting sterile packing into the nares is not recommended. While this might seem like a good way to stop the drainage, it could actually be very dangerous. If the fluid is CSF, the packing could act as a conduit, drawing bacteria up into the brain and leading to infection. Additionally, the packing could cause pressure on the brain if the fluid continues to drain but has nowhere to go.


Question 6: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing Cushing's Triad following a subdural hematoma. Which of the following manifestations will the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Slow even breathing is not a sign of Cushing's Triad, which is a late indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The breathing pattern may be altered due to brainstem compression, but not necessarily slow or even.

Choice B Reason: This is a correct answer because bradycardia and bounding pulse are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects an increased vagal tone and decreased cardiac output due to increased ICP.

Choice C Reason: Systolic hypotension with a narrowing pulse pressure is not a sign of Cushing's Triad, which involves an increased systolic blood pressure and a widened pulse pressure due to increased ICP. Hypotension may occur due to shock or hemorrhage, but not as a result of increased ICP.

Choice D Reason: This is a correct answer because irregular respirations are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects impaired respiratory control due to brainstem compression from increased ICP. The respirations may be Cheyne-Stokes, central neurogenic hyperventilation, apneustic, or ataxic.

Choice E Reason: Tachycardia and bounding pulse are not signs of Cushing's Triad, which involves bradycardia and bounding pulse due to increased ICP. Tachycardia may occur due to pain, anxiety, fever, or hypoxia, but not as a result of increased ICP.

Choice F Reason: This is a correct answer because systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure are part of Cushing's Triad, which reflects an increased cerebral perfusion pressure due to increased ICP. The diastolic blood pressure remains stable or decreases, resulting in a widened pulse pressure.


Question 7: View

A client newly diagnosed with glaucoma has a history of asthma. Which of the following medications newly prescribed by the eye doctor will the nurse question?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Antibiotics are not contraindicated for a client with glaucoma and asthma, as they can treat or prevent infections that may affect the eye or the respiratory system.

Choice B Reason: This is the correct answer because non-selective beta blockers are contraindicated for a client with glaucoma and asthma, as they can reduce intraocular pressure but also cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma symptoms.

Choice C Reason: NSAIDs are not contraindicated for a client with glaucoma and asthma, as they can reduce inflammation and pain that may affect the eye or the respiratory system.

Choice D Reason: Anticoagulants are not contraindicated for a client with glaucoma and asthma, as they can prevent or treat thromboembolic events that may affect the eye or the respiratory system.



Question 8: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has a complete spinal cord injury. Based on the nurse's understanding about the degree of this type of injury, what can the nurse expect will be the client's level of function?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is the correct choice because a complete spinal cord injury is a condition where there is no motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will also have impaired thermoregulation, breathing, and blood pressure. The client will need 24-hour a day care to assist with mobility, hygiene, elimination, nutrition, and prevention of complications.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to assist with transfer and perform self-care has a partial spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A partial spinal cord injury is a condition where there is some motor or sensory function below the level of injury. The degree of impairment depends on the extent and location of the damage.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to roll over independently has a lower spinal cord injury, not a complete one. A lower spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the lumbar or sacral segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of the lower limbs (paraplegia) and some loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. The client will still have some control over the upper limbs and trunk.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because a client who is able to drive an electric wheelchair has an upper spinal cord injury, not a complete one. An upper spinal cord injury is a condition where there is damage to the cervical or thoracic segments of the spinal cord. The client will have paralysis of all four limbs (quadriplegia) and loss of bladder, bowel, and sexual function. However, the client may still have some movement or sensation in the shoulders, arms, or hands.


Question 9: View

A blind client reports that they are having difficulty with sleep that is affecting their daytime activities. Which of the following will the nurse include in her plan of care for the client?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because a referral to a sleep study program is not the most appropriate plan of care for a blind client who has difficulty with sleep. A sleep study program is used to diagnose and treat sleep disorders such as sleep apnea, narcolepsy, or restless legs syndrome.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because assisting the client to see if a night shift job is available is not a helpful plan of care for a blind client who has difficulty with sleep. A night shift job can disrupt the circadian rhythm and worsen the sleep quality and quantity of the client.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because institution of opioids and sedatives is not a safe plan of care for a blind client who has difficulty with sleep. Opioids and sedatives can cause addiction, dependence, tolerance, and withdrawal symptoms. They can also impair the respiratory and cognitive functions of the client.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because education about non-24 disorder is an essential plan of care for a blind client who has difficulty with sleep. Non-24 disorder is a condition where the internal clock of the body does not synchronize with the 24-hour day-night cycle. It can cause irregular sleep patterns, daytime fatigue, and mood disturbances. It is more common in blind people who lack light perception. The nurse should educate the client about the causes, symptoms, and treatments of non-24 disorder.


Question 10: View

A nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching for a client who has hearing loss. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Explanation

Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because dimming the lights in the client's room is not a helpful action for providing discharge teaching for a client who has hearing loss. Dimming the lights can reduce the visibility and clarity of the nurse's facial expressions, gestures, and lip movements, which can aid in communication.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because increasing the rate of speech when talking with the client is not an effective action for providing discharge teaching for a client who has hearing loss. Increasing the rate of speech can make it harder for the client to follow and understand what the nurse is saying.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because answering client's questions using medical terminology is not an appropriate action for providing discharge teaching for a client who has hearing loss. Medical terminology can be confusing and unfamiliar to the client, which can impair comprehension and learning.

Choice D Reason: This is the correct choice because facing the client while talking is an important action for providing discharge teaching for a client who has hearing loss. Facing the client can enhance eye contact, attention, and rapport. It can also allow the client to see the nurse's facial expressions, gestures, and lip movements, which can facilitate communication.


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