Med Surg RN 25 final Exam

ATI Med Surg RN 25 final Exam

Total Questions : 66

Showing 10 questions Sign up for more
Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following factors should the nurse anticipate have been identified as contributing to the development of multiple sclerosis? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

Choice A reason: Genetics play a significant role in the development of multiple sclerosis (MS). While MS is not directly inherited, certain genetic markers can increase susceptibility. Studies have shown that individuals with a first-degree relative with MS have a higher risk compared to the general population.

Choice B reason: Environmental factors, such as low vitamin D levels, smoking, and possibly viral infections, are believed to contribute to the risk of developing MS. Geographic location, particularly living further from the equator, has also been associated with a higher incidence of MS, which may be related to sun exposure and vitamin D synthesis.

Choice C reason: While upper respiratory infections can trigger exacerbations in individuals with existing MS, they are not identified as a direct contributing factor to the development of the disease itself.

Choice D reason: MS is considered an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the central nervous system. This immune-mediated process targets the myelin sheath, leading to inflammation and characteristic lesions.

Choice E reason: Urinary tract infections are a common complication in individuals with MS due to bladder dysfunction, but they are not a contributing factor to the development of MS.


Question 2: View

A nurse observes reddish-purple spots and areas of purple bruising on a newly admited patient. Which laboratory results support this assessment finding?

Explanation

Choice A reason: An INR of 0.9 is within the normal range (0.8-1.2) and does not support the presence of bruising or bleeding disorders.

Choice B reason: A hematocrit level of 28% is below the normal range (36%-50% for women, 40%-54% for men), indicating anemia, but it does not directly explain bruising or petechiae.

Choice C reason: A WBC count of 4500 is within the normal range (4500-11000), suggesting that there is no active infection or leukocytosis that would explain the bruising.

Choice D reason: A platelet count of 60000 is below the normal range (150000-450000), which can lead to easy bruising and petechiae, supporting the nurse's observation.


Question 3: View

What diagnostic test can be used to determine GFR as well as glomerular damage?

Explanation

Choice A reason : A renal biopsy is an invasive procedure that can directly assess the extent of glomerular damage and is considered the gold standard for diagnosing the cause of abnormal GFR.

Choice B reason : Routine urinalysis can detect abnormalities in the urine but cannot quantify GFR or directly assess glomerular damage.

Choice C reason : A renal scan can evaluate renal perfusion and function but is less specific for glomerular damage compared to a biopsy.

Choice D reason : Creatinine clearance can estimate GFR but does not provide information on the specific cause of glomerular damage.


Question 4: View

Which of the following is the most common risk factor for emphysema?

Explanation

Choice A reason : Smoking tobacco is the most significant risk factor for developing emphysema. It damages the air sacs in the lungs and leads to the characteristic symptoms of emphysema.
Choice B reason : While pollution can contribute to respiratory problems, it is not the most common risk factor for emphysema compared to smoking tobacco.
Choice C reason : Age between 20 to 30 years is not a risk factor for emphysema. Emphysema typically develops after many years of smoking, often in older adults.
Choice D reason : Asthma is a different respiratory condition and is not a risk factor for emphysema. However, individuals with asthma who smoke may have an increased risk of developing COPD, which includes emphysema.


Question 5: View

The nurse evaluates her teaching as effective when the patient recovering from acute renal failure states that he will do which of the following?

Explanation

Choice A reason (acute renal failure): Patients recovering from acute renal failure are not typically restricted to only vegetable proteins. Protein needs can vary based on the individual's condition and treatment plan.

Choice B reason (acute renal failure): Fluid intake recommendations for patients recovering from acute renal failure depend on their current kidney function and fluid balance status. A blanket restriction to 1500 mL or less per day may not be appropriate for all patients.

Choice C reason (acute renal failure): Avoiding nephrotoxic drugs is crucial for patients recovering from acute renal failure to prevent further kidney damage.

Choice D reason (acute renal failure): Self-catheterization for residual urine is not a standard recommendation for all patients recovering from acute renal failure. This would be specific to patients with urinary retention issues.


Question 6: View

A client with severe sepsis related to an untreated rectal/vaginal fistula is admited to the floor. She has received two doses of Gentamicin. As luck would have it, she is now in acute renal failure. Which type of renal failure did the Gentamicin cause?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pre-Renal failure is caused by factors external to the kidneys, typically involving reduced blood flow or hydration affecting kidney function. Gentamicin does not typically cause this type of failure.
Choice B reason : 'Super-secret double renal failure' is not a medically recognized type of renal failure.
Choice C reason : Post-Renal failure is due to obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys, which is not typically associated with Gentamicin use.
Choice D reason : Intra-Renal failure, also known as intrinsic renal failure, is caused by direct damage to the kidneys themselves. Gentamicin can cause acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects, leading to Intra-Renal failure.


Question 7: View

You are admitting a client from a long-term care facility with a new diagnosis of Hepatitis A. He has a history of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) that has left him incontinent of both urine and stool. Which of the following is the most appropriate level of precautions?

Explanation

Choice A reason (precautions): Droplet precautions are not the primary recommendation for Hepatitis A, as it is not primarily spread through droplets.
Choice B reason (precautions): Contact precautions are recommended for patients with Hepatitis A due to the risk of fecal-oral transmission, especially in a patient with incontinence.
Choice C reason (precautions): While standard precautions are always necessary, they are not sufficient alone for Hepatitis A, which requires additional precautions due to its mode of transmission.
Choice D reason (precautions): Airborne precautions are not required for Hepatitis A, as it is not spread through the air.


Question 8: View

In planning care for a patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), which of the following should the nurse identify as the highest priority goal of care?

Explanation

Choice A reason : While maintaining a stable ECG rhythm is important, it is not the highest priority. The primary concern is to address life-threatening complications.

Choice B reason : Educating the patient about the causes and effects of coronary heart disease (CHD) or coronary artery disease (CAD) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate priority during acute care.

Choice C reason : Adequate relief of pain is the highest priority in the care of a patient with AMI. Pain is an indicator of ongoing ischemia and can increase the workload of the heart, thereby worsening the condition.

Choice D reason (AMI): While bedrest is part of the care plan, it is not the highest priority compared to pain relief, which has direct implications on the patient's immediate physiological status.


Question 9: View

A nurse is educating a client about the risk factors for GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease). Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining and increase acid reflux, worsening GERD symptoms. It is generally not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.
Choice B reason : Mercury content in seafood is not directly linked to GERD. This statement is misleading and does not address known risk factors for GERD.
Choice C reason : Lying down after eating can indeed increase the onset of GERD as it allows stomach contents to flow back into the esophagus more easily.
Choice D reason : Alcohol and caffeine can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach acid to rise into the esophagus and worsen GERD symptoms. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid or reduce their intake.


Question 10: View

Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-year-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching?

Explanation

Choice A reason : Maintenance chemotherapy is not typically used to maintain remission in Hodgkin's lymphoma after successful treatment.

Choice B reason : Follow-up appointments are crucial for monitoring any signs of recurrence or secondary malignancies, as well as managing long-term effects of treatment.

Choice C reason : The potential impact of chemotherapy on fertility is an important topic, especially for younger patients, but may not be as relevant for a 55-year-old woman.

Choice D reason : Addressing symptoms like pruritus, which can persist after treatment, is important for patient comfort and quality of life.


You just viewed 10 questions out of the 66 questions on the ATI Med Surg RN 25 final Exam Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams.

Subscribe Now

learning

Join Naxlex Nursing for nursing questions & guides! Sign Up Now