The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a group of assigned clients on a hematological unit.
The nurse should understand that which of the following clients has an increased risk for developing iron deficiency anemia?

A 24-year-old female who is 6 months pregnant and is taking prescribed prenatal vitamins.

A 42-year-old male with a history of hypertension who exercises three times a week.

A 37-year-old male client who works 16 hours a day and consumes a high carbohydrate diet.

A 20-year-old female client with a history of menorrhagia and consumes a strict vegetarian diet.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Pregnant women may experience increased iron demands due to expanded blood volume and fetal requirements. However, prescribed prenatal vitamins typically contain sufficient iron to prevent deficiency. Compliance with supplementation reduces the risk for anemia, and pregnancy itself is not an independent factor without nutritional inadequacy. Other physiological conditions, such as menorrhagia or dietary restrictions, can significantly elevate risk factors for iron deficiency anemia.

Choice B rationale

Hypertension does not inherently increase the risk of iron deficiency anemia. Exercise three times a week is unlikely to create significant hematological challenges unless combined with conditions like poor dietary intake or chronic illness. Physical activity does not deplete iron stores unless excessive or accompanied by inappropriate nutrition. This client does not exhibit risk factors as critical as menorrhagia or dietary restrictions for anemia development.

Choice C rationale

Working long hours and consuming a high-carbohydrate diet might affect overall health, but these factors do not directly relate to iron absorption or blood loss. While poor nutritional habits can lead to deficiencies, high carbohydrate intake does not necessarily deplete iron reserves. A vegetarian or restrictive diet lacking iron-rich foods poses a greater risk for developing anemia than carbohydrate consumption alone.

Choice D rationale

Menorrhagia results in excessive blood loss during menstruation, which can deplete iron stores and lead to anemia. A strict vegetarian diet often lacks heme iron, which is more readily absorbed compared to non-heme iron from plant sources. Together, these factors create a dual risk of iron deficiency, emphasizing why this client is the most likely among the options to develop anemia. Nutritional counseling and supplementation are key preventive measures.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Assessing for hypotension is not indicative of fluid overload. Hypotension is more likely associated with hypovolemia or hemorrhage, whereas fluid overload manifests as signs of hypervolemia, including elevated blood pressure and pulmonary edema.

Choice B rationale

Assessing for distention above the pubis area identifies bladder retention or obstruction but is not directly related to monitoring fluid overload. Fluid overload affects systemic circulation and organ function rather than localized distention.

Choice C rationale

Monitoring laboratory values for hypernatremia is not an effective strategy for detecting fluid overload. Hypernatremia occurs due to inadequate water intake rather than excessive fluid administration. Fluid overload is typically identified by signs such as pulmonary congestion and generalized edema.

Choice D rationale

Maintaining strict intake and output records is crucial in detecting fluid overload. It helps identify disproportionate fluid retention compared to urinary output, signaling hypervolemia. Continuous monitoring ensures timely adjustments in fluid administration and prevents complications. .

A. Explain that the client should return in one month to be reevaluated. B. Assess the client's adherence to lifestyle modifications and medication therapy. C. Explain to the client that the health care provider will increase the dose of one of the medications already prescribed. D. Discuss adding a prescribed calcium-channel blocker to the client's medication regimen.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Delaying follow-up without immediate intervention may result in the client's blood pressure remaining uncontrolled, increasing the risk of complications like cardiovascular events. Reevaluation in one month without assessing adherence neglects the urgent need for optimizing management.

Choice B rationale

Assessing adherence to both lifestyle modifications and medication therapy is crucial as noncompliance may explain the suboptimal blood pressure control. Ensuring adherence and addressing any barriers are necessary steps in evaluating the effectiveness of treatment.

Choice C rationale

Increasing medication dosage without first assessing the client's adherence to current prescriptions or lifestyle modifications may be premature. Nonadherence to therapy could render dosage adjustments ineffective, leading to unnecessary changes to the regimen.

Choice D rationale

Adding a calcium-channel blocker without assessing adherence disregards the importance of compliance. Treatment should be optimized based on existing therapy before considering additional pharmacological interventions. .

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The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a group of assigned clients on a hematological unit.The nurse should understand that which of the following clients has an increased risk for developing iron deficiency anemia?

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The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a group of assigned clients on a hematological unit.
The nurse should understand that which of the following clients has an increased risk for developing iron deficiency anemia?