Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus type II?
A high level of adipokines stimulating increased glucose uptake.
Insufficient insulin receptors resulting in hyperglycemia.
Increased secretion of insulin from the pancreas.
Autoimmune disorder with 90% destruction of beta cells.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: High adipokine levels, as in obesity, promote insulin resistance by interfering with insulin signaling, not increasing glucose uptake. This reduces glucose uptake, contributing to hyperglycemia, but the description is inaccurate, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance due to insufficient or dysfunctional insulin receptors, reducing glucose uptake in cells, leading to hyperglycemia. This is a primary pathophysiological mechanism, often linked to obesity, making this the correct choice.
Choice C reason: Increased insulin secretion occurs early in type 2 diabetes to compensate for insulin resistance, but the primary issue is receptor dysfunction, not increased secretion. Over time, beta cells may fail, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Autoimmune destruction of beta cells describes type 1 diabetes, not type 2. Type 2 involves insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency, not massive beta cell loss, making this choice incorrect for type 2 diabetes.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Autosomal dominant disorders affect both genders equally, as they are not sex-linked. Heterozygous individuals express the disorder, not just males, due to the dominant allele on an autosome. The idea of females being carriers only applies to X-linked recessive disorders, making this choice scientifically inaccurate.
Choice B reason: Autosomal dominant disorders are caused by mutations on autosomes, not the Y chromosome, which is sex-linked and primarily affects males. These disorders do not typically skip generations, as the dominant allele is expressed in every affected individual, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: In autosomal dominant disorders, a single mutated allele is sufficient for expression. An affected parent (heterozygous) has one normal and one mutated allele, leading to a 50% chance of passing the mutated allele to each child, causing the disorder. This genetic inheritance pattern makes this the correct choice.
Choice D reason: In autosomal dominant disorders, there is no "carrier" state as in recessive disorders, because heterozygous individuals express the disorder. The 50% probability applies to inheriting the disorder itself, not a carrier genotype, which is a concept relevant to autosomal recessive disorders, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
A. Primary immunodeficiency involves a developmental failure in the bone marrow or thymus, impairing immune system development. This aligns with the question, as primary immunodeficiencies, such as severe combined immunodeficiency or DiGeorge syndrome, result from genetic defects affecting lymphocyte development, crucial for meeting physiological needs in Maslow’s hierarchy.
B. Secondary immunodeficiency results from external factors like infections or malnutrition, not developmental failure in the bone marrow or thymus. This does not fit the question, as it lacks a congenital basis.
C. Autoimmune disorders arise from immune system dysfunction attacking self-tissues, not developmental failure in immune organs. This is unrelated to the question’s focus on developmental defects.
D. Infections are a consequence of primary immunodeficiency due to impaired T-cell or B-cell function, increasing susceptibility to recurrent bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. This fits the question, as immunodeficiency predisposes individuals to infections.
E. Allergies result from immune overreactions to harmless substances, not a direct consequence of developmental immune defects. This does not align with the question’s focus on immunodeficiency outcomes.
F. Autoimmune diseases involve immune attacks on self-tissues, not a primary outcome of developmental immune failure. This is incorrect for the question’s context.
G. Malignancies are a known complication of primary immunodeficiencies, as impaired immune surveillance increases cancer risk, particularly lymphomas or leukemias. This aligns with the question’s focus on outcomes of immunodeficiency.
H. Chronic pain is not a direct result of immunodeficiency or developmental failure in the bone marrow or thymus. This does not fit the question’s scope.
I. Recurrent infections are a hallmark of primary immunodeficiency, as defective immune components fail to protect against pathogens. This aligns with the question, as it directly results from immune system developmental failure.
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