Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of diabetes mellitus type II?
A high level of adipokines stimulating increased glucose uptake.
Insufficient insulin receptors resulting in hyperglycemia.
Increased secretion of insulin from the pancreas.
Autoimmune disorder with 90% destruction of beta cells.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: High adipokine levels, as in obesity, promote insulin resistance by interfering with insulin signaling, not increasing glucose uptake. This reduces glucose uptake, contributing to hyperglycemia, but the description is inaccurate, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance due to insufficient or dysfunctional insulin receptors, reducing glucose uptake in cells, leading to hyperglycemia. This is a primary pathophysiological mechanism, often linked to obesity, making this the correct choice.
Choice C reason: Increased insulin secretion occurs early in type 2 diabetes to compensate for insulin resistance, but the primary issue is receptor dysfunction, not increased secretion. Over time, beta cells may fail, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Autoimmune destruction of beta cells describes type 1 diabetes, not type 2. Type 2 involves insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency, not massive beta cell loss, making this choice incorrect for type 2 diabetes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A vesicle is a small, elevated, thin-walled lesion filled with clear fluid, typically less than 1 cm, seen in conditions like herpes or contact dermatitis. This matches the description perfectly, making it the correct choice for the lesion.
Choice B reason: A pustule is an elevated lesion filled with pus, not clear fluid, indicating infection or inflammation. The description specifies clear fluid, not purulent content, making pustule incorrect for the described skin lesion.
Choice C reason: A macule is a flat, non-elevated skin lesion with color change, like a freckle, not containing fluid. The description of an elevated, fluid-filled lesion does not match, making macule incorrect for this scenario.
Choice D reason: A nodule is a solid, elevated lesion deeper in the skin, not thin-walled or fluid-filled. The description of a clear fluid-filled, elevated lesion does not fit a nodule’s characteristics, making this choice incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Lack of appetite is not typical in type 1 diabetes, where increased appetite (polyphagia) occurs due to glucose deprivation in cells. Weight loss is more characteristic, making this choice incorrect.
Choice B reason: Oliguria (low urine output) is not a feature of type 1 diabetes, which causes polyuria due to osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia. This makes the choice incorrect for type 1 diabetes.
Choice C reason: Night sweats are not a primary manifestation of type 1 diabetes. They may occur in hypoglycemia but are not a hallmark symptom, unlike weight loss, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Weight loss in type 1 diabetes results from insulin deficiency, preventing glucose uptake, leading to fat and muscle breakdown for energy. This is a classic symptom, making this the correct choice.
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