Choice A reason: Advances in surgical techniques and procedures have improved the outcomes of many patients, but they are not the main factor for the increase in life expectancy. Surgical interventions are often costly, risky, and inaccessible to many people, especially in developing countries.

Choice B reason: Sanitation and other public health activities have had a significant impact on reducing mortality from infectious diseases, such as cholera, typhoid, and tuberculosis. These activities include providing safe water, improving hygiene, promoting vaccination, and controlling vector-borne diseases. Sanitation and public health measures are relatively low-cost, effective, and preventive strategies that can benefit large populations.

Choice C reason: Technology increases in the field of medical laboratory research have contributed to the diagnosis and treatment of many diseases, such as cancer, diabetes, and genetic disorders. However, these technologies are often expensive, complex, and dependent on specialized equipment and personnel. Therefore, they are not the main reason for the increase in life expectancy.

Choice D reason: The use of antibiotics to fight infections has been a major breakthrough in medicine, saving millions of lives from bacterial infections. However, antibiotics have also led to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, which pose a serious threat to public health. Moreover, antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, such as influenza, HIV, and COVID-19. Therefore, antibiotics are not the most responsible factor for the increase in life expectancy.

Choice A: Reviewing communicable disease statistics. This is incorrect because this is an example of descriptive epidemiology, not analytic epidemiology. Descriptive epidemiology describes the distribution and patterns of health events in populations, such as the frequency, location, and time of occurrence.

Choice B: Tracking locations where family violence is increasing. This is incorrect because this is also an example of descriptive epidemiology, not analytic epidemiology. Descriptive epidemiology tracks the trends and variations of health problems in different groups or areas.

Choice C: Describing population characteristics for healthy older citizens. This is incorrect because this is another example of descriptive epidemiology, not analytic epidemiology. Descriptive epidemiology provides information about the demographic and social factors that influence health outcomes.

Choice D: Identifying factors contributing to childhood obesity. This is correct because this is an example of analytic epidemiology. Analytic epidemiology investigates the causes and associations of health events in populations, such as the risk factors, exposures, or interventions that affect health outcomes. Analytic epidemiology often uses comparison groups to test hypotheses and draw conclusions.

Choice A reason: Completing a survey of the various ethnicities represented in the nurse's community is a good way to learn about diversity, but it is not the first step in developing cultural competence. The nurse should first examine their own cultural background and biases, and how they affect their interactions with clients.

Choice B reason: Studying the beliefs and traditions of persons living in other cultures is a valuable way to gain knowledge and understanding, but it is not the first step in developing cultural competence. The nurse should first be aware of their own cultural values and assumptions, and how they influence their perceptions and judgments.

Choice C reason: Considering how the nurse's own personal beliefs and decisions are reflective of their culture is the first step in developing cultural competence. The nurse should recognize that culture is not only about ethnicity, but also about age, gender, religion, education, socioeconomic status, and other factors. The nurse should also acknowledge that culture is dynamic and complex and that each person has a unique cultural identity.

Choice D reason: Inviting a family from another culture to join the nurse for an event is a nice way to show respect and interest, but it is not the first step in developing cultural competence. The nurse should first develop self-awareness and sensitivity, and avoid making stereotypes or generalizations about other cultures.

Choice A reason: The integumentary system is a portal of entry for anthrax because the bacteria can enter through cuts or abrasions on the skin. This is called cutaneous anthrax, and it is the most common and least deadly form of anthrax infection.

Choice B reason: The endocrine system is not a portal of entry for anthrax because the bacteria do not affect the glands or hormones of the body. The endocrine system is mainly involved in regulating metabolism, growth, development, and reproduction.

Choice C reason: The central nervous system is a portal of entry for anthrax because the bacteria can spread to the brain and spinal cord from other parts of the body. This is called meningeal anthrax, and it is a rare and fatal complication of anthrax infection.

Choice D reason: The renal system is not a portal of entry for anthrax because the bacteria do not infect the kidneys or urinary tract. The renal system is mainly involved in filtering waste products and excess fluids from the blood.

Choice E reason: The respiratory system is a portal of entry for anthrax because the bacteria can be inhaled into the lungs. This is called inhalation anthrax, and it is the most deadly form of anthrax infection.

Choice A reason: "Diet and exercise is good for you and good for your heart." This statement is true, but it is not the appropriate nursing response. It does not address the client's concerns or provide any specific information about cardiac rehabilitation. It may also sound dismissive or patronizing to the client.

Choice B reason: "It's not unusual to feel that way at first, but once you learn the routine, you'll enjoy it." This statement is empathetic, but it is not the appropriate nursing response. It does not explain the purpose or benefits of cardiac rehabilitation. It may also sound unrealistic or optimistic to the client.

Choice C reason: "Cardiac rehabilitation cannot undo the damage to your heart, but it can help you get back to your previous level of activity safely." This statement is the appropriate nursing response. It acknowledges the client's condition and provides factual information about cardiac rehabilitation. It also emphasizes the positive outcomes of cardiac rehabilitation, such as improving physical function, reducing symptoms, and preventing further complications.

Choice D reason: "Your doctor is the expert here, and I'm sure he would only recommend what is best for you." This statement is respectful, but it is not the appropriate nursing response. It does not answer the client's question or provide any education about cardiac rehabilitation. It may also sound evasive or deferential to the client.

Choice A reason: Repeat dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache. This instruction is incorrect because sumatriptan should not be taken more than twice in 24 hours. Taking too much sumatriptan can cause serious side effects, such as high blood pressure, stroke, or heart problems.

Choice B reason: Chew the tablet well before swallowing. This instruction is incorrect because sumatriptan tablets should be swallowed whole with water. Chewing the tablet may affect its absorption and effectiveness.

Choice C reason: If you experience chest pain, call your physician immediately. This instruction is correct because chest pain is a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of sumatriptan. Chest pain may indicate a heart attack or coronary artery spasm, which require immediate medical attention.

Choice D reason: Take daily to prevent headaches. This instruction is incorrect because sumatriptan is not a preventive medication for migraines. It is only used to treat acute migraine attacks when they occur. Taking sumatriptan daily can cause rebound headaches, which are worse and more frequent than the original ones.

Choice A reason: The AP's ability to complete the task without assistance is not one of the five rights of delegation. The nurse is responsible for providing adequate supervision and guidance to the AP, and ensuring that the task is done correctly and safely.

Choice B reason: The AP's ability to prioritize is not one of the five rights of delegation. The nurse is responsible for assigning tasks based on their urgency and importance and communicating clear expectations and deadlines to the AP.

Choice C reason: The AP's rapport with clients is not one of the five rights of delegation. The nurse is responsible for maintaining a therapeutic relationship with clients and respecting their preferences and needs.

Choice D reason: The AP has the knowledge and skill to perform the task is one of the five rights of delegation. The nurse is responsible for assessing the AP's competence and readiness to perform the task, and providing appropriate training and feedback if needed.

Choice A reason: Nurses performing duties outside of the nurses' typical job description is a component that should include nurses. In a disaster situation, nurses may have to assume roles and responsibilities that are beyond their usual scope of practice, such as triage, first aid, or mass casualty management. Nurses should be trained and prepared to perform these duties safely and effectively.

Choice B reason: A plan for comprehensive practice drills is a component that should include nurses. Practice drills are essential for testing and improving the disaster plan, as well as enhancing the skills and confidence of the staff. Nurses should participate in regular and realistic drills that simulate different types of disasters and scenarios.

Choice C reason: Identification of resources to meet anticipated needs for food, water, and supplies is a component that should include nurses. In a disaster situation, the demand for resources may exceed the supply, and the availability of resources may be disrupted or limited. Nurses should be involved in identifying and prioritizing the essential resources that are needed to provide care and support to the clients and staff.

Choice D reason: An internal and external communication plan is a component that should include nurses. In a disaster situation, communication is vital for coordinating actions, sharing information, and providing updates. Nurses should be aware of the communication channels and protocols that are used within and outside the hospital, such as radios, phones, or social media.

Choice E reason: Discharge all surgical clients who are one day or more post-op is not a component that should include nurses. This is not a realistic or appropriate strategy for reducing the hospital's occupancy or workload in a disaster situation. Discharging surgical clients who are still recovering may compromise their health outcomes and increase their risk of complications or readmission.

Choice A reason: Gradual onset of several hours is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel in the brain bursts, causing bleeding into the surrounding tissue. This usually happens suddenly and without warning, and can cause rapid deterioration of the client's condition.

Choice B reason: Maintains consciousness is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke can cause increased intracranial pressure, which can compress the brain and impair its function. This can lead to loss of consciousness, coma, or death.

Choice C reason: Sudden severe headache is a manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke can cause intense pain in the head, neck, or face, due to the pressure and irritation of the bleeding. The headache may be described as "the worst headache of my life" or "thunderclap headache".

Choice D reason: History of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hr. is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. This is a characteristic of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is also known as a mini-stroke. A TIA occurs when a blood clot temporarily blocks an artery in the brain, causing temporary symptoms such as weakness, numbness, vision loss, or speech difficulty. A TIA does not cause permanent damage to the brain, but it is a warning sign of a possible future stroke.

Choice A reason: A public health nurse is a nurse who works to improve the health and well-being of populations and communities, not specific workplaces. A public health nurse may focus on disease prevention, health promotion, environmental health, or emergency preparedness.

Choice B reason: A community nurse specialist is a nurse who has advanced education and training in a specific area of nursing practice, such as gerontology, oncology, or mental health. A community nurse specialist may work in various settings, such as hospitals, clinics, or schools, to provide specialized care and education to clients and families.

Choice C reason: A nurse clinician is a nurse who has expertise in clinical practice, research, and education. A nurse clinician may work in academic or clinical settings, such as universities, hospitals, or research centers, to develop and implement evidence-based practices and policies.

Choice D reason: An occupational health nurse is a nurse who works to protect and promote the health and safety of workers in various industries, such as manufacturing, mining, or construction. An occupational health nurse may provide services such as health assessment, injury prevention, emergency response, or wellness programs.