Ati med surg nursing 400 exam (endocrine disorders)
Ati med surg nursing 400 exam (endocrine disorders)
Total Questions : 42
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreWhich of the following populations is eligible for Medicare?
Explanation
A. Low-income individuals may qualify for Medicaid, not Medicare. Medicaid is a state and federally funded program designed for individuals with limited income and resources.
B. Military veterans typically receive health benefits through the VA (Veterans Affairs) system, not Medicare, unless they meet other eligibility criteria (like age).
C. Individuals aged 55–64 are not automatically eligible for Medicare unless they have certain qualifying disabilities or end-stage renal disease.
D. Individuals aged 65 and older are eligible for Medicare. Medicare is a federal health insurance program primarily for people aged 65 and over, though some younger individuals with disabilities may also qualify.
Which of the following strategies is most effective in providing growth opportunities for nurses within the first three years to enhance retention?
Explanation
A. Providing mandatory workshops on hospital policies may be necessary for compliance and orientation, but these are not typically focused on personal or professional growth and are less likely to enhance long-term retention.
B. Offering mentorship programs is the most effective strategy for growth and retention. Mentorship provides support, guidance, and professional development opportunities, which are especially valuable for nurses in their early years of practice. It helps build confidence, fosters engagement, and increases job satisfaction.
C. Increasing the frequency of shift rotations can lead to fatigue and dissatisfaction, particularly in early-career nurses who are still adapting to the demands of the job. It’s unlikely to support growth or retention.
D. Implementing stricter supervision protocols may create a controlling environment that undermines trust and autonomy, which could negatively impact morale and retention among new nurses.
Which of the following is correct when comparing the United States healthcare system with other high-income countries? The United States:
Explanation
A. Has an increasing life expectancy is incorrect. In recent years, the U.S. has seen a stagnation or even decline in life expectancy, partly due to chronic disease prevalence, the opioid crisis, and disparities in care.
B. Provides less acute myocardial infarction care is incorrect. The U.S. generally provides high-quality acute care, including treatment for heart attacks, and often performs well in this area compared to other countries.
C. Has lower maternal and neonatal mortality rates is incorrect. The U.S. actually has higher maternal and infant mortality rates compared to other high-income nations, often due to systemic disparities and fragmented care.
D. Spends more per capita on health care is correct. The U.S. consistently spends the most per person on healthcare among high-income countries, yet often does not achieve better overall outcomes, highlighting inefficiencies in the system.
What was the item in the suicidal client's room during the safety exercise at school that was on the back of the chair? The:
Explanation
A. Bed sheet is a common item considered a safety risk in real clinical settings, but in this specific safety exercise, it was not the item identified as being on the back of the chair.
B. Patient gown is typically worn by the client and would not usually be placed on the back of a chair as a risk item during a safety evaluation.
C. Beige jacket is correct. In the safety exercise scenario, the beige jacket was on the back of the chair, and it could pose a ligature risk, making it a key item of concern in suicide prevention protocols.
D. Blow dryer may be a potential safety risk in general, but it was not the item noted on the back of the chair in the described scenario.
A new-to-practice nurse is experiencing bullying from an experienced nurse. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Explanation
A. Discuss the behavior with other colleagues to gain support may provide emotional relief, but it doesn’t formally address the issue or ensure appropriate intervention. It can also risk spreading gossip rather than resolving the conflict.
B. Report the bullying to a supervisor or manager is the most appropriate action. Bullying should be addressed through proper channels to protect the nurse and maintain a safe, professional work environment. Leaders are responsible for enforcing a zero-tolerance policy and can take corrective steps.
C. Ignore the behavior and focus on your work is not a healthy or effective strategy. Ignoring bullying can lead to increased stress, burnout, and decreased job satisfaction, and it allows the behavior to continue unchecked.
D. Confront the experienced nurse directly and demand respect may escalate the situation or lead to further conflict. While direct communication can be part of conflict resolution, it should be done professionally and often with support or guidance from a manager or HR.
A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) threatening a client by telling them that they will be physically restrained if they don't comply with the nurse's instructions. Which of the following intentional torts is the AP committing?
Explanation
A. Battery involves physical contact or touching a person without consent. Since no physical action was taken, battery does not apply in this case.
B. Assault is correct. Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to make bodily contact with another person without their consent, causing the person to fear imminent harm. The AP's threat to restrain the client if they don't comply fits this definition.
C. False imprisonment involves unlawfully restricting a person’s freedom of movement, such as restraining them without medical or legal justification. Although the AP threatened restraint, no action was taken yet, so this tort does not apply—yet.
D. Invasion of privacy involves unauthorized access or disclosure of personal information, which is unrelated to this situation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving vasopressin. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is working? A decrease in...
Explanation
A. Urine output is correct. Diabetes insipidus (DI) causes excessive urine output due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Vasopressin acts as a synthetic ADH, helping the kidneys retain water. A decrease in urine output indicates the medication is effective.
B. Specific gravity would actually increase if the medication is working, as the urine becomes more concentrated. A decrease in specific gravity would indicate continued dilute urine, suggesting the medication is not effective.
C. Blood glucose is not typically affected by vasopressin or directly related to diabetes insipidus, which is different from diabetes mellitus.
D. Blood pressure might slightly increase due to vasopressin's vasoconstrictive effects, but this is not the primary indicator that the medication is working for diabetes insipidus.
A nurse is planning care for a client who requires airborne precautions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Stand 1.8 m (6 feet) away from the client is incorrect. For airborne precautions, a nurse should maintain a much greater distance (typically at least 2 meters, or about 6 feet), but the key action is wearing the appropriate protective equipment, such as an N95 respirator.
B. Allow the client to ambulate in the hall is incorrect. Clients on airborne precautions should generally be restricted to their rooms to prevent the spread of infectious particles. If ambulation is necessary, it should be done with appropriate precautions (such as a mask for the client and the staff wearing an N95 respirator).
C. Wear an N95 respirator mask is correct. For airborne precautions, healthcare providers must wear an N95 respirator mask to protect themselves from inhaling airborne pathogens, such as those associated with diseases like tuberculosis or measles.
D. Provide a positive-pressure airflow room is incorrect. Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure room to contain airborne pathogens and prevent their spread to other areas of the facility. A positive-pressure room is typically used for clients who are immunocompromised, to prevent pathogens from entering the room.
A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for developing kidney stones. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for preventing kidney stone formation in this client?(Select All that Apply.)
Explanation
A. Encouraging the use of calcium supplements is incorrect. Clients with hyperparathyroidism often have elevated calcium levels, so increasing calcium intake can worsen hypercalcemia and increase the risk of kidney stones.
B. Encouraging the consumption of oxalate-rich foods is incorrect. Oxalate-rich foods, such as spinach, beets, and nuts, can increase the risk of calcium oxalate stones, especially in individuals with hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, oxalate-rich foods should be avoided.
C. Encouraging a low-calcium diet is incorrect. Although high calcium intake can worsen hypercalcemia, a low-calcium diet is not typically recommended. Instead, the focus should be on maintaining balanced calcium levels, as calcium is still important for overall health.
D. Administer oral phosphates as ordered is correct. Phosphates can help lower calcium levels in the blood by binding to calcium and reducing its absorption, which can help prevent kidney stone formation.
E. Increase fluids and fiber is correct. Increased fluid intake helps dilute urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Additionally, fiber can promote overall digestive health, which can be helpful for preventing kidney stones.
F. Administer furosemide as ordered is incorrect. Furosemide, a diuretic, increases urine output but does not prevent kidney stones. It may actually increase the risk by causing dehydration, which promotes stone formation.
G. Administer calcium chelators is incorrect. Calcium chelators are not typically used in the prevention of kidney stones caused by hyperparathyroidism, and their use could interfere with necessary calcium levels in the body.
H. Encouraging increased fluid intake is correct. Adequate fluid intake is essential in preventing kidney stones, as it helps dilute urine and reduces the concentration of calcium and other stone-forming substances.
Which of the following assessments would be most indicative of thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis) in a client with poorly managed hyperthyroidism?
Explanation
A. Elevated body temperature and profuse sweating is correct. Thyroid storm (also known as thyrotoxicosis) is a severe, life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism. Common signs include elevated body temperature (fever), profuse sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, and agitation, all of which are indicative of this condition.
B. Weight gain and cold intolerance is incorrect. These are signs of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism or thyroid storm. In hyperthyroidism, weight loss and heat intolerance are more typical.
C. Muscle weakness and fatigue is incorrect. While muscle weakness and fatigue can occur in hyperthyroidism, they are more commonly seen in chronic hyperthyroidism rather than in the acute setting of thyroid storm, where more extreme symptoms such as fever and tachycardia are prominent.
D. Bradycardia and low blood pressure is incorrect. Bradycardia and low blood pressure are signs of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism or thyroid storm, where you would expect tachycardia and elevated blood pressure.
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