Ati Pathophysiology unit test 3

Ati Pathophysiology unit test 3

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Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 2 years ago. The client reports following the recommended diet and exercising four times per week. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's beta cells are restoring normal function?

Explanation

A. HbA1c = 5.6%. HbA1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. A level of 5.6% is within the normal range (below 5.7%), indicating good glycemic control. This suggests that the client’s diabetes is well managed, potentially indicating that the beta cells are functioning well and insulin sensitivity has improved.

B. Client reports smoking cessation: While smoking cessation is very beneficial for overall health and can improve diabetes management, it does not directly indicate beta cell function restoration. It is more related to reducing cardiovascular risks and improving long-term health outcomes.

C. Weight gain of 5 lb: Weight gain is not typically a sign of improving beta cell function. In fact, weight gain can sometimes indicate poor control of diabetes, as insulin resistance can worsen with increased weight. It is not a direct measure of beta cell activity.

D. Fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL: A fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is above the normal range and suggests poor glycemic control, indicating that beta cells are not functioning adequately to maintain normal glucose levels. This value points to ongoing issues with insulin resistance or secretion.


Question 2: View

In which of the following types of pneumonia does consolidation involve the entire lobe of the lung?

Explanation

A. Empyema: Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity, not a type of pneumonia. It is usually a complication of pneumonia rather than a description of the pneumonia itself.

B. Bronchopneumonia: Bronchopneumonia involves patchy consolidation that is usually scattered throughout the lung fields, not confined to a single lobe. It affects the bronchi and surrounding lung parenchyma.

C. Severe pneumonia: The term "severe pneumonia" describes the severity of the disease but does not specify the pattern of consolidation. It does not indicate whether the consolidation is lobar or patchy.

D. Lobar pneumonia: Lobar pneumonia is characterized by consolidation that involves an entire lobe of the lung. It typically presents with homogenous radiographic opacification of one or more lobes, often caused by pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.


Question 3: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has myxedema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

A. Heat intolerance: Heat intolerance is typically associated with hyperthyroidism, where metabolic processes are increased. Myxedema is a severe form of hypothyroidism, characterized by a decreased metabolic rate, which would more likely cause cold intolerance, not heat intolerance.

B. Tachycardia: Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is generally seen in hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolism. Myxedema, which is associated with hypothyroidism, more commonly presents with bradycardia (slow heart rate).

C. Diarrhea: Diarrhea is a symptom of hyperthyroidism because of the increased gastrointestinal motility. In hypothyroidism, and specifically myxedema, constipation is more common due to decreased GI motility.

D. Facial edema: Myxedema is characterized by significant hypothyroidism leading to the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the skin and other tissues, causing facial edema and a puffy appearance. This is a classic symptom of severe hypothyroidism.


Question 4: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has Addison's disease and is at risk for Addisonian crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Restrict fluid intake: In Addison's disease, there is often a risk of dehydration due to insufficient aldosterone leading to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance. Fluid restriction could exacerbate these problems and is contraindicated.

B. Weigh the client daily. Monitoring daily weight is crucial to detect rapid weight changes which can indicate fluid imbalance, a common issue in Addison's disease. It helps in early detection of complications like dehydration or fluid overload.

C. Provide a low-carbohydrate diet. A low-carbohydrate diet is not specifically recommended for Addison's disease. Clients with Addison’s might need an adequate intake of carbohydrates to prevent hypoglycemia, particularly during stress or illness.

D. Administer oral corticosteroids. Addison's disease is characterized by insufficient production of corticosteroids. Administering oral corticosteroids is essential to replace the missing hormones and prevent an Addisonian crisis, especially during stress or illness.


Question 5: View

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who reports pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, and shortness of breath and nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

A. Maintain oxygen saturations greater than or equal to 92%: Maintaining oxygen saturation is important but is not the immediate priority. The symptoms suggest a possible myocardial infarction (heart attack), and the primary focus should be on immediate diagnostic assessment and treatment.

B. Obtain an EKG: The symptoms described (pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, along with shortness of breath and nausea) are classic signs of a myocardial infarction. An EKG is essential to quickly diagnose this potentially life-threatening condition and guide further treatment.

C. Administer enteric-coated acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is typically used for pain relief or fever reduction, not for the treatment of symptoms that may indicate a heart attack. It does not address the potential underlying cause, which is more serious.

D. Administer ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may provide pain relief but is not appropriate for a suspected myocardial infarction. NSAIDs can also potentially increase the risk of cardiovascular events and would not be suitable in this context.


Question 6: View

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has diabetes mellitus about preventing the long-term complications of retinopathy and nephropathy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Explanation

A. "Have an eye examination once per year." Annual eye examinations are essential for detecting diabetic retinopathy early. Early detection and treatment can help prevent vision loss. This is a key recommendation for managing diabetes-related eye complications.

B. "Examine your feet carefully every day." While daily foot examinations are important for preventing diabetic foot ulcers and other complications, they do not directly address the prevention of retinopathy and nephropathy, which are more related to blood glucose control and vascular health.

C. "Wear compression stockings daily." Compression stockings are used to manage conditions like chronic venous insufficiency and to prevent deep vein thrombosis, but they are not related to the prevention of diabetic retinopathy or nephropathy.

D. "Maintain stable blood glucose levels." Keeping blood glucose levels stable is crucial for preventing both retinopathy and nephropathy. Chronic hyperglycemia is a major risk factor for these complications, and good glycemic control reduces the risk of developing or worsening these conditions. This is also crucial but does not specifically target the complications as precisely as regular eye exams do.


Question 7: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Explanation

A. Blood glucose level below 40 mg/dL: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by hyperglycemia, typically with blood glucose levels significantly elevated above normal, often exceeding 250 mg/dL. A glucose level below 40 mg/dL would indicate hypoglycemia, which is not a feature of DKA.

B. Malignant hypertension: Malignant hypertension is a condition characterized by extremely high blood pressure and is not directly associated with DKA. DKA primarily involves issues with glucose and acid-base balance rather than hypertension.

C. Cheyne-Stokes breathing: Cheyne-Stokes breathing is a specific pattern of periodic breathing typically seen in severe neurologic conditions or heart failure, not in DKA. DKA is associated with Kussmaul breathing, which is deep and rapid breathing as the body attempts to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

D. Acetone odor to breath: An acetone (fruity) odor to the breath is a classic sign of DKA due to the presence of ketones in the blood and urine. This occurs because the body is breaking down fatty acids for energy, leading to the production of ketones, which are then excreted through the breath and urine.


Question 8: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

A. Hyperpigmentation: This can occur due to increased production of melanin-stimulating hormones in some cases of Cushing's syndrome.

B. Weight loss: Weight loss is not a common feature of Cushing's syndrome. Instead, it usually presents with weight gain, particularly in the trunk and face (leading to "moon face" and "buffalo hump").

C. Hypotension: Hypotension is more common in Addison's disease due to the lack of cortisol and aldosterone. Cushing's syndrome is associated with hypertension due to excess cortisol increasing blood pressure.

D. Diaphoresis: Excessive sweating is not a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome.


Question 9: View

A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

A. Bradycardia: Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus usually involves dehydration, which can lead to tachycardia (fast heart rate) as the body attempts to maintain adequate blood flow despite low fluid volume.

B. Polyphagia: Polyphagia, or excessive hunger, is typically a symptom of diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and thirst, not increased hunger.

C. Hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia is related to diabetes mellitus. Diabetes insipidus involves a problem with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) leading to excessive urine production and dehydration, not issues with blood sugar levels.

D. Dehydration: Dehydration is a primary concern in diabetes insipidus because of the excessive loss of water through urine. Patients are unable to concentrate their urine due to a deficiency in ADH or renal resistance to it, leading to significant fluid loss and dehydration.


Question 10: View

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

A. Jugular distention: Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where there is a backlog of blood into the venous system due to poor right heart function. Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the pulmonary system.

B. Frothy sputum: Frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, a hallmark of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation and frothy or blood-tinged sputum.

C. Dependent edema: Dependent edema (e.g., swelling in the legs) is more characteristic of right-sided heart failure, where there is fluid retention in the systemic circulation. Left-sided heart failure is more associated with pulmonary symptoms.

D. Nocturnal polyuria: Nocturnal polyuria can occur in both types of heart failure as fluid that accumulates during the day is mobilized at night when the person lies down. However, it is not the most distinctive sign of left-sided heart failure compared to pulmonary symptoms.


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