Video Library
Ati pharmacology 2 assessment
Ati pharmacology 2 assessment
Total Questions : 45
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of dopamine. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Explanation
A. A heart rate of 105/min is slightly elevated, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or has other concerning signs.
B. Infiltration of the peripheral IV requires immediate intervention, as it can lead to tissue damage and prevent the medication from being effectively delivered. The nurse should stop the infusion, assess the site, and take appropriate action.
C. Increased blood pressure is a common effect of dopamine administration and does not necessarily require urgent intervention unless it becomes critically high or is associated with other adverse symptoms.
D. Occasional PVCs can occur during dopamine infusion and can be monitored unless they become frequent or symptomatic; they typically do not require immediate intervention.
While assessing a client at the beginning of the shift, a nurse notes that the client received a medication in error from the nurse on the previous shift. At which of the following times should the nurse plan to complete an incident report about the error?
Explanation
A. Delaying the incident report until the end of the current shift can compromise the timely documentation of the error and any necessary interventions that may arise.
B. While it's important to notify risk management, the priority should be to document the incident immediately after assessing the client to ensure a complete record of the error.
C. Completing the incident report as soon as the assessment is complete is the most appropriate action, allowing for prompt documentation of the error and any potential effects on patient care.
D. Informing the previous nurse is necessary for communication, but it should not delay the completion of the incident report, which is crucial for tracking errors and improving safety protocols.
A nurse is planning a staff education session about adverse effects of medications. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the adverse effects of anticholinergic medications? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. Blurred vision is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications due to their effect on the eye muscles and pupil dilation.
B. Polyuria is not typically associated with anticholinergic medications; these medications may actually lead to urinary retention.
C. A productive cough is not an expected adverse effect of anticholinergic medications; instead, they may cause dry mucous membranes and a dry cough.
D. Tachycardia can occur as anticholinergic medications block the effects of acetylcholine on the heart, leading to increased heart rate.
E. Constipation is a well-known side effect of anticholinergic medications because they reduce gastrointestinal motility.
A nurse is reviewing the lab work of a client on a medical-surgical unit who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse identify as the priority to monitor?
Explanation
A. Monitoring alanine aminotransferase is important for liver function, but it is not the priority for a client on captopril.
B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is not directly impacted by captopril and is not the priority lab value to monitor in this context.
C. Potassium is the priority laboratory value to monitor because captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels), which can cause serious cardiac complications.
D. While magnesium levels are important to monitor, they are not specifically related to captopril therapy as potassium levels are.
A charge nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse to the unit-dose medication system. Which of the following information should the charge nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
A. The pharmacist typically restocks the medication drawer each day to ensure that medications are available and up-to-date. This is an essential component of the unit-dose medication system.
B. The nursing supervisor does not usually unlock the medication drawer; this is typically done by the nurse in charge or the individual administering the medications.
C. While it is important to limit the number of controlled substances, the medication drawer is usually stocked in a manner that allows for easy access to necessary medications, and there are regulations that govern this process.
D. Opened medications should not necessarily be disposed of at the end of each shift; they may be retained if they are still within their stability period and are properly stored according to protocols.
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has myasthenia gravis and is asking about starting neostigmine. The nurse should identify which of the following client conditions as a potential contraindication for cholinesterase inhibitor therapy?
Explanation
A. Cataracts are not a contraindication for cholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine.
B. Hypertension is not a direct contraindication for cholinesterase inhibitor therapy, although caution may be exercised depending on the overall health status of the client.
C. Hypothyroidism is not contraindicated for cholinesterase inhibitors; however, it should be managed appropriately.
D. Peptic ulcer disease is a significant contraindication for cholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine because these medications can increase gastric secretions and motility, potentially exacerbating ulcer conditions and leading to complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following surgery. The nurse notes palpable bladder distention. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?
Explanation
A. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes urine production but is not indicated for treating bladder distention or urinary retention post-surgery.
B. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication and does not address urinary retention or bladder distention.
C. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agent that stimulates bladder contraction and is used to treat urinary retention. It helps to facilitate voiding in clients who have difficulty.
D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can actually inhibit bladder contraction, making it inappropriate for this situation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chemotherapy-induced anemia. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications to treat the anemia?
Explanation
A. Sargramostim is a granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) used to stimulate the production of white blood cells but is not specifically indicated for anemia.
B. Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) that increases white blood cell counts and is not used for treating anemia.
C. Epoetin is an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent that stimulates red blood cell production, making it the appropriate choice for treating chemotherapy-induced anemia.
D. Romiplostim is a thrombopoietin receptor agonist used to treat thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) and is not indicated for anemia.
A nurse is preparing to administer topotecan IV to a client. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to treat the adverse effects of topotecan?
Explanation
A. "Cloudy" is not a medication and does not address any adverse effects related to topotecan.
B. Granisetron is an antiemetic medication used to prevent nausea and vomiting, which are common adverse effects of topotecan.
C. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels and does not relate to the adverse effects of topotecan.
D. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to prevent constipation, but it does not specifically address the nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy.
E. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that may be used for other indications but is not primarily indicated for treating the nausea and vomiting caused by topotecan.
. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for the initial treatment of hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as the action of this medication?
Explanation
A. Hydrochlorothiazide does not prevent angiotensin II from binding with receptor sites; this action is typically associated with ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide decreases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal renal tubule, which leads to increased urine output and decreased blood volume, effectively lowering blood pressure.
C. Hydrochlorothiazide does not block beta receptors; this is the mechanism of action for beta-blockers.
D. Hydrochlorothiazide does not promote the movement of extravascular fluids into the vascular compartment; instead, it reduces blood volume by promoting diuresis.
You just viewed 10 questions out of the 45 questions on the Ati pharmacology 2 assessment Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams. Subscribe Now
