MED SURG QUIZ

ATI MED SURG QUIZ

Total Questions : 30

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Question 1: View

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected metabolic acidosis. Which finding would be consistent with this diagnosis?

Explanation

a. Kussmaul respirations: Metabolic acidosis leads to an accumulation of acids in the body, resulting in compensatory hyperventilation to try to decrease the levels of carbon dioxide and increase pH. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid, and labored breathing patterns characteristic of this compensation mechanism.

b. Muscle spasms: While muscle spasms can occur in various conditions, they are not specific to metabolic acidosis. Other factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or dehydration, may cause muscle spasms.

c. Paresthesia in fingers: Paresthesia (tingling or numbness) in the fingers can occur due to metabolic acidosis. Acidosis affects nerve function, leading to abnormal sensations in the extremities. It is not specific to metabolic acidosis.

d. Tinnitus: Tinnitus is not typically associated with metabolic acidosis. It is more commonly associated with conditions such as ototoxicity, Meniere's disease, or vascular disorders affecting the inner ear.


Question 2: View

The nurse is assessing a client who is one hour post percutaneous valvuloplasty via a left groin site. Which intervention does the nurse consider the priority?

Explanation

a. Check groin dressing: While monitoring the dressing is important, it is not the top priority immediately after the procedure. The nurse should assess other critical aspects first.
b. Review current H&H (hemoglobin and hematocrit): Although monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential, it is not the highest priority at this moment. Immediate post-procedure concerns take precedence.
c. Check blood glucose: Blood glucose monitoring is important, especially if the client has diabetes or other risk factors. However, it is not the priority right after the procedure.
d. Assess pain level: This is the priority intervention. The nurse should assess the client’s pain level, especially at the insertion site. Pain could indicate complications such as bleeding, hematoma, or vascular injury.


Question 3: View

The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client following placement of a mechanical aortic valve. Which information regarding warfarin(coumadin) therapy would the nurse include? Select all that apply.

Explanation

a. Use a soft bristle toothbrush: Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy can increase the risk of bleeding. Using a soft bristle toothbrush can help reduce the risk of gum bleeding or oral mucosal injury, which is important for clients on anticoagulant therapy.
b. Risk of infection is increased: There is no direct association between warfarin therapy and an increased risk of infection. This option is not relevant to warfarin therapy.
c. Check for black, tarry stools: Warfarin therapy increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Black, tarry stools can indicate upper gastrointestinal bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention.
d. Limit aspirin to 650mg/day: Aspirin is typically avoided or used cautiously in combination with warfarin due to an increased risk of bleeding. However, there is no specific recommended limit of 650mg/day for aspirin use in conjunction with warfarin. This option does not accurately reflect guidance for warfarin therapy.
e. Keep appointments for PT/INR monitoring: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) monitoring are essential for assessing the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. PT/INR levels need to be within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Keeping appointments for monitoring ensures timely adjustments to the warfarin dosage.


Question 4: View

The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic and laboratory results for a client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea. Which result would be a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Explanation

a. BNP 700pg/ml (<100pg/ml)

Rationale: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a biomarker used to diagnose and assess the severity of heart failure. Elevated BNP levels indicate increased ventricular stretch and fluid overload, both of which are indicative of worsening heart failure. A BNP level of 700pg/ml is significantly elevated compared to the normal range (<100pg/ml) and suggests acute exacerbation or decompensation of heart failure, requiring prompt intervention and management adjustment.

b. Chest x-ray shows cardiomegaly: While cardiomegaly on chest x-ray is indicative of heart failure, it is a diagnostic finding rather than an acute result requiring immediate intervention. It would be important to address but may not require urgent reporting unless accompanied by acute symptoms.

c. Hematocrit 35% (37-47%): A hematocrit of 35% falls at the lower end. While changes in hematocrit can indicate fluid volume status, this value alone does not indicate an urgent need for intervention or adjustment of therapy. It may warrant monitoring over time, but it is not an immediate concern.

d. Echocardiogram with ejection fraction of 60% (normal is 55-75%): An ejection fraction of 60% falls within the normal range and is not indicative of worsening heart failure. While it's essential to monitor ejection fraction in heart failure patients, this result alone does not suggest acute decompensation requiring immediate intervention.


Question 5: View

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with COPD and respiratory acidosis?

Explanation

a. Assess level of consciousness: Respiratory acidosis in COPD patients can lead to hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels), which may result in altered mental status, confusion, or decreased level of consciousness due to respiratory depression. Assessing the level of consciousness is important to monitor for signs of worsening respiratory distress or impending respiratory failure.

b. Monitor serum sodium: COPD patients with respiratory acidosis may retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory compensation by the kidneys through increased retention of bicarbonate ions. This retention of bicarbonate can result in metabolic alkalosis and potentially affect electrolyte balance, including sodium levels. Monitoring serum sodium levels is essential to detect any electrolyte imbalances that may occur as a result of respiratory acidosis and its compensatory mechanisms.

c. Check skin turgor: While checking skin turgor is a valuable assessment for hydration status, it may not be directly related to respiratory acidosis in COPD. However, it's still important to assess hydration status in COPD patients, especially those with exacerbations, as dehydration can exacerbate respiratory symptoms.

d. Administer diuretics: Diuretics are not typically indicated in the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD. In fact, diuretics can worsen respiratory acidosis by potentially causing volume depletion and further reducing effective gas exchange in already compromised lungs. Diuretics may be used cautiously in COPD patients with concomitant heart failure or volume overload, but their use should be carefully monitored and individualized.


Question 6: View

A client has received a tissue valve replacement for treatment of valve disease. Which complication occurs more often with this type of prosthetic valve?

Explanation

a. Hemolytic anemia: Hemolytic anemia is more commonly associated with mechanical heart valves rather than tissue valves. Mechanical valves can cause damage to red blood cells as they move through the valve, leading to hemolysis and subsequent anemia. Tissue valves typically do not cause significant hemolysis.

b. Endocarditis: Endocarditis is a known complication associated with prosthetic heart valves, including tissue valves. While tissue valves generally have a lower risk of thrombosis compared to mechanical valves, they are still susceptible to bacterial colonization and subsequent endocarditis. Patients with prosthetic heart valves, regardless of type, are recommended to take antibiotic prophylaxis before certain dental or surgical procedures to reduce the risk of infective endocarditis

c. Hypertension: Hypertension is not specifically associated with tissue valve replacements. While hypertension is a common cardiovascular condition, it is not directly related to the type of prosthetic valve implanted.

d. Elevated PT/INR: Elevated prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are more commonly associated with mechanical heart valves rather than tissue valves. Mechanical valves require lifelong anticoagulation therapy with medications such as warfarin to prevent thrombosis. Tissue valves generally do not require long-term anticoagulation therapy, although they may still require short-term anticoagulation immediately after implantation.


Question 7: View

A client reports episode of dyspnea and chest pain unrelated to activity. Which valve disorder does the nurse suspect may be causing these symptoms?

Explanation

a. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation involves the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole due to a dysfunctional aortic valve. While aortic regurgitation can cause symptoms such as dyspnea and chest pain, they are typically associated with exertion rather than occurring at rest or unrelated to activity.

b. Mitral valve prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse is characterized by the abnormal movement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole. While mitral valve prolapse can lead to symptoms such as palpitations, chest discomfort, and dyspnea, these symptoms are usually not unrelated to activity. They are often precipitated or exacerbated by physical exertion or stress.

c. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis involves narrowing of the mitral valve opening, which obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. Symptoms of mitral stenosis, such as dyspnea and chest discomfort, typically occur with exertion or during periods of increased cardiac demand rather than being unrelated to activity.

d. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis is characterized by narrowing of the aortic valve opening, which obstructs blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. This obstruction leads to increased pressure in the left ventricle and can cause symptoms such as dyspnea (due to pulmonary congestion) and chest pain (angina) even at rest. These symptoms are often exacerbated during physical activity but can occur spontaneously as well.


Question 8: View

A client with a history of heart failure presents to the emergency department with elevated blood pressure, dyspnea and bilateral crackles throughout lung fields. Which intervention would the nurse implement first?

Explanation

a. Review I&O (Intake and Output): While reviewing intake and output is an essential component of assessing fluid status in heart failure, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. The client's presentation with dyspnea and crackles suggests acute respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention to address potential hypoxemia.

b. Check pulse oximetry: In a client presenting with elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and bilateral crackles throughout lung fields, the priority intervention is to assess oxygenation status. Checking pulse oximetry provides immediate information about the client's oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial for determining the severity of respiratory distress and guiding subsequent interventions. Hypoxemia is a common complication in heart failure exacerbations and can worsen symptoms such as dyspnea and respiratory distress.

c. Administer digoxin: Digoxin is a medication commonly used in the management of heart failure to improve cardiac output and reduce heart rate. However, it is not the priority intervention in this scenario. Assessing oxygenation status and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over administering medications.

d. Obtain 12-lead ECG: While obtaining a 12-lead ECG is important for assessing cardiac rhythm and identifying any potential cardiac abnormalities, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. The client's presentation with acute respiratory distress warrants immediate assessment of oxygenation status to guide appropriate interventions.


Question 9: View

The nurse is planning care for a client with pericarditis. Which intervention assesses for the potential complication of cardiac tamponade?

Explanation

a. Check current WBC count: While an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count may indicate inflammation, it is not specific to the assessment of cardiac tamponade. WBC count may be elevated in pericarditis due to the inflammatory process, but it does not directly assess for the potential complication of cardiac tamponade.

b. Assess for hypertension: Hypertension is not typically associated with cardiac tamponade. Instead, cardiac tamponade is characterized by hemodynamic compromise, which may manifest as hypotension rather than hypertension. While assessing blood pressure is important in overall cardiovascular assessment, it is not specific to detecting cardiac tamponade.

c. Auscultate heart sounds: Auscultating heart sounds, specifically for the presence of muffled heart sounds (reduced intensity of heart sounds) and distant heart sounds, is a key assessment for detecting cardiac tamponade, a potential complication of pericarditis. Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and impairing cardiac filling. This can lead to hemodynamic compromise and potentially life-threatening consequences. Muffled or distant heart sounds are classic signs of cardiac tamponade and indicate the need for immediate intervention.

d. Measure blood glucose: Blood glucose measurement is not directly related to the assessment of cardiac tamponade. While monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients with diabetes or those at risk of hyperglycemia, it does not provide information specific to the detection of cardiac tamponade.


Question 10: View

A client is admitted to the hospital with an acid base imbalance. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are: Ph 7.33 (7.35-7.45), PaCO2 49mmHg (35-45mmHg), HCO3 26mEq/L (22-26mEq/L). How should the nurse interpret these results?

Explanation

a. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis: Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH (above 7.45) and a low PaCO2 (below 35mmHg). In this case, the pH is below the normal range and the PaCO2 is elevated, which does not support the diagnosis of respiratory alkalosis.

b. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis: Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and an elevated bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is below the normal range and the HCO3 level is within the normal range, which does not support the diagnosis of metabolic alkalosis.

c. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis: Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a low bicarbonate (HCO3) level. In this case, the pH is below the normal range, but the HCO3 level is within the normal range, which does not support the diagnosis of metabolic acidosis.

d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis: The pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is elevated at 49mmHg (normal range: 35-45mmHg), indicating respiratory acidosis. The HCO3 is within the normal range at 26mEq/L (normal range: 22-26mEq/L), indicating that compensation has not occurred. Therefore, the ABG results suggest uncompensated respiratory acidosis.


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