Choice A rationale

Stopping the blood transfusion is critical to prevent the progression of a transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Immediate cessation of the transfusion minimizes the amount of incompatible blood entering the patient’s system, reducing the risk of serious complications such as hemolysis or anaphylaxis. Rapid intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and to provide time for assessment and implementation of appropriate treatments. Recognizing the signs of a transfusion reaction and acting swiftly is essential in managing the patient’s condition effectively.

Choice B rationale

Administering an antipyretic is not the priority action when a transfusion reaction is suspected. Fever can be a symptom of a transfusion reaction, but stopping the transfusion and assessing the patient are more urgent. Antipyretics like acetaminophen can be given to manage fever, but only after the transfusion is halted and the patient’s overall condition has been evaluated. Addressing the root cause of the reaction takes precedence to prevent further complications.

Choice C rationale

Encouraging oral fluids is not an immediate priority during a transfusion reaction. While maintaining hydration is important, the initial step must be to stop the transfusion and assess the patient’s condition. Oral fluids do not address the underlying issue of the transfusion reaction and are not effective in managing acute symptoms. Prioritizing actions that directly mitigate the reaction is essential for patient safety.

Choice D rationale

Applying supplemental oxygen may be necessary if the patient exhibits signs of respiratory distress during a transfusion reaction. However, the first action should be to stop the transfusion to prevent further exposure to the incompatible blood product. Oxygen can be administered as a supportive measure after the transfusion is halted and the patient’s respiratory status is assessed. Addressing the immediate cause of the reaction is paramount.

Choice E rationale

Sending blood for type and crossmatch is important for identifying the cause of the transfusion reaction and ensuring safe future transfusions. However, this action is not the priority during the acute phase of a reaction. Stopping the transfusion and assessing the patient’s condition must come first to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications. Laboratory testing can be performed once the patient’s immediate needs are addressed.

Choice A rationale

Advancing from clear liquids as tolerated is important for the patient’s nutritional intake and postoperative recovery. However, it is not the most urgent task upon admission from the PACU. The nurse must first address immediate needs such as infection prevention and monitoring vital signs before considering dietary advancements. This step can be implemented once the patient’s initial postoperative stability is confirmed.

Choice B rationale

Administering cefazolin 1 gram IV every 6 hours is critical for preventing postoperative infections, especially in patients with surgical wounds. Prophylactic antibiotics are essential in reducing the risk of surgical site infections, which can lead to severe complications. Timely administration of antibiotics helps maintain therapeutic levels in the bloodstream, providing effective coverage against potential pathogens and promoting a positive postoperative outcome.

Choice C rationale

Straight catheterization if unable to void is important for managing urinary retention and preventing bladder distention. However, this intervention should be based on the patient’s condition and the amount of time since the last voiding. It is not the most urgent action upon admission from the PACU unless the patient is exhibiting signs of significant discomfort or bladder distention. Monitoring the patient’s urinary output is important but should follow the administration of prophylactic antibiotics.

Choice D rationale

Completing a blood cell count (CBC) in the morning is important for assessing the patient’s overall health and detecting any potential complications such as anemia or infection. However, it is not the most urgent action upon admission from the PACU. The nurse should prioritize tasks that address immediate postoperative needs, such as administering antibiotics and monitoring vital signs, before scheduling routine blood tests.

Choice A rationale

The nurse’s signature on the surgical consent form does not verify the client’s understanding of the procedure. This responsibility lies with the physician or surgeon, who must ensure that the client is fully informed about the nature, risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure. The nurse’s role is to witness the client’s signature, confirming that the client has signed the form without coercion and is competent to do so.

Choice B rationale

The client’s competence to sign the consent form is a crucial aspect that the nurse witnesses. By signing as a witness, the nurse attests that the client is mentally sound and capable of making informed decisions about their medical care. This includes verifying that the client is not under the influence of substances that could impair judgment and that they understand the nature of the consent they are giving.

Choice C rationale

The client voluntarily granting permission for the procedure is another key element of the nurse’s witnessing role. The nurse’s signature confirms that the client has signed the consent form of their own free will, without any undue pressure or coercion. This ensures the validity of the consent and protects the client’s rights and autonomy in making healthcare decisions.

Choice D rationale

The explanation of the procedure, its necessity, and potential outcomes are the responsibility of the surgeon or physician. The nurse does not provide this detailed explanation but ensures that the client has had the opportunity to receive this information from the appropriate healthcare provider. The nurse’s signature does not verify that the surgeon has explained the procedure; it simply confirms the witnessing of the client’s signature.

Choice E rationale

Understanding the risks and benefits of the procedure is part of the informed consent process, which the physician or surgeon must explain to the client. The nurse’s role is to witness the client’s signature, ensuring that the client has had the opportunity to receive this information. The nurse’s signature does not confirm the client’s understanding of these details but indicates that the consent was signed voluntarily and competently.

Choice A rationale

A client with a positive Mantoux test and sputum cultures positive for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) requires a negative airflow room and airborne precautions. This is to prevent the spread of tuberculosis (TB), an infectious disease that can be transmitted through airborne particles. The use of a particulate respirator mask by healthcare personnel is essential in protecting themselves from inhaling infectious aerosols. Implementing these precautions is critical in controlling the spread of TB within healthcare settings and ensuring patient and staff safety.

Choice B rationale

A client with genital herpes simplex II lesions does not require a negative airflow room or airborne precautions. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected lesions or body fluids. Standard precautions, including contact precautions when dealing with lesions, are adequate to prevent the spread of HSV. Negative airflow rooms and airborne precautions are not necessary for managing this condition.

Choice C rationale

Scarlet fever, complicated with pneumonia, primarily requires standard and droplet precautions rather than airborne precautions. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus, which is spread through respiratory droplets. While pneumonia can increase the severity of the infection, negative airflow rooms and particulate respirators are not typically required. Droplet precautions, such as wearing masks and maintaining distance, are sufficient to prevent transmission.

Choice D rationale

Scabies is a parasitic infestation that spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated items such as bedding and clothing. Negative airflow rooms and airborne precautions are not necessary for managing scabies. Standard and contact precautions, including wearing gloves and gowns and thoroughly cleaning and disinfecting contaminated items, are adequate to prevent the spread of the mites causing scabies. The use of a particulate respirator mask is not required.

Choice A rationale

Assessing serum potassium levels every 4 hours is essential for clients receiving insulin to treat hyperkalemia. Insulin promotes the uptake of potassium into cells, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Frequent monitoring ensures prompt detection of abnormal potassium levels, enabling timely intervention.

Choice B rationale

Although glucose monitoring is important, it is not the priority. Insulin administration affects potassium levels more significantly in this scenario, and glucose level fluctuations are typically less life-threatening than potassium imbalances.

Choice C rationale

Monitoring intake and output is standard practice for managing clients with electrolyte imbalances. However, it does not directly address the primary concern of potassium level fluctuations caused by insulin administration.

Choice D rationale

A daily 12-lead electrocardiogram may provide useful information on the cardiac effects of electrolyte imbalances but is less immediate in detecting rapid potassium changes than frequent serum potassium measurements.

Choice A rationale

Noting the date and time of the behavior is the first step in addressing the issue, providing a record for future reference and ensuring accuracy in documentation.

Choice C rationale

Planning for scheduled break times helps address potential reasons for the behavior, offering a structured solution to prevent recurrence and improve overall workflow.

Choice B rationale

Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement is the final step, assessing whether the implemented interventions have been effective and if further actions are needed.

Choice A rationale

Severe motor dysfunction indicates the degree of impairment but does not determine the extent of successful habilitation. Habilitation depends on various factors, including individual capabilities, intervention quality, and environmental support.

Choice B rationale

Brain damage with CP is not progressive, meaning it does not worsen over time. However, the effects and manifestations can vary, leading to a range of functional outcomes. This provides a realistic and hopeful perspective for the child's future.

Choice C rationale

CP is indeed one of the most common permanent physical disabilities in children, but this statement does not directly address the mother's concern about the potential progression of impaired movements.

Choice D rationale

The continued development of the brain lesion is not a characteristic of CP. The brain damage is static, meaning it does not change, although its effects may become more apparent as the child grows and develops.

Choice A rationale

Consulting with a nurse who shares the same religious beliefs may provide insight, but it may not fully address the client's unique care preferences and individual needs.

Choice B rationale

Researching the religion on social media platforms can offer information, but it is not a substitute for understanding the client's specific preferences and requirements.

Choice C rationale

Asking the client about individual care preferences is the best approach, ensuring that care is personalized and respectful of the client's religious beliefs, leading to better compliance and satisfaction.

Choice D rationale

Explaining that every client receives the same high level of care is important but does not address the client's specific religious concerns and preferences.

Step 1 is 500 mL ÷ 30 min.

Step 2 is 16.67 mL/min × 60 min/hour. Answer: 1000 mL/hour.

Choice A rationale

Participation of community leaders in planning the program is crucial because these leaders have an in-depth understanding of the community's needs and concerns. Their involvement ensures that the program is culturally relevant and addresses the specific health disparities faced by African-American women. Additionally, community leaders can help foster trust and encourage participation from community members, making the program more effective.

Choice B rationale

While morbidity data for breast cancer in women of all races can provide valuable information on overall trends, it does not address the specific needs and challenges faced by African-American women. Focusing on the unique risks and barriers faced by this group is essential for designing an effective health promotion program.

Choice C rationale

A listing of African-American women who live in the community is useful for outreach and engagement but does not provide the essential insight needed to design a culturally sensitive and relevant program. Participation from community leaders is more effective in understanding and addressing the community's specific needs.

Choice D rationale

Technical assistance to produce a video on breast self-examination is valuable for education but is not the most important resource for designing a comprehensive health promotion program. The program must be tailored to the community's unique needs, which requires input from community leaders.