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Ati rn pediatric nursing 2023 exam

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Total Questions : 66

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Question 1:

A nurse is caring for a school-age child who has heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 2:

A nurse is transporting a 12-year-old child in a wheelchair. The child begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 3:

16-year-old female presents with abdominal and pelvic pain lasting 2 days. Past medical history includes right arm fracture at the age of 7. Reproductive history includes sexual activity with 4 partners over the last 2 months. Oral contraceptives used for the past 12 months. Last menstrual period 7 days ago. Current on all vaccinations; human papillomavirus vaccine deferred. Vaginal examination: Noted cervical mucopurulent discharge.

0930:

Client reports severe pelvic and abdominal cramping, pain with urination, and nausea and vomiting for the past 2 days. Rates pain as 6 to 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Reports experiencing intermittent fever of 38.6° C (101.5° F) accompanied by chills.

  • Temperature 38° C (100.4° F)
  • Heart rate 96/min
  • Respiratory rate 16/min
  • Blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg
  • Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

White blood cell count 12,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

C-reactive protein 2.6 mg/dL (less than 1.0 mg/dL)

Urinalysis:

Appearance: cloudy (clear)

Color: dark yellow (amber yellow)

pH 7.0 (4.6 to 8.0)

Protein 5 mg/dL (0 to 8 mg/dL)

Specific gravity 1.036 (1.005 to 1.030)

Leukocyte esterase: negative (negative)

Nitrites: none (none)

Ketone: none (none)

Bilirubin: none (none)

White blood cells 0 (0 to 4 per low-power field)

Red blood cells 0 (less than 2)

Cervical culture: Positive for chlamydia trachomatis

Human chorionic gonadotropin 2 IU/L (Negative: less than 5 IU/L)

A nurse is caring for an adolescent

Exhibits

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Rationale for Correct Choices

• Pelvic inflammatory disease: The client’s fever, pelvic pain, mucopurulent cervical discharge, elevated WBC and CRP, and positive chlamydia test point to pelvic inflammatory disease, a complication of untreated sexually transmitted infection.

• Instruct the adolescent about the use of sitz baths: Sitz baths provide localized warmth and comfort, reducing pelvic and abdominal pain while promoting circulation and relaxation in the pelvic region.

• Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN pain: Acetaminophen helps relieve pelvic cramping, fever, and discomfort, improving the client’s ability to tolerate care and promoting rest.

• Vaginal bleeding: PID can damage reproductive tissue, increasing risk of abnormal vaginal bleeding, so monitoring helps detect complications such as worsening infection or endometrial involvement.

• Temperature greater than 38.3° C (100.9° F): Persistent fever indicates ongoing infection or ineffective antibiotic therapy, making temperature an essential marker for evaluating treatment response.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices

• Acute appendicitis: This condition presents with right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and elevated inflammatory markers, but mucopurulent cervical discharge and positive chlamydia culture make PID more likely.

• Urinary tract infection: A UTI typically causes dysuria, frequency, and pyuria in urinalysis, but this client’s urine shows no WBCs or nitrites, making this diagnosis unlikely.

• Ectopic pregnancy: The negative hCG rules out pregnancy-related causes such as ectopic pregnancy, despite the abdominal pain.

• Maintain an NPO status: This is appropriate for appendicitis or surgical conditions, not PID, which is treated with antibiotics and comfort measures.

• Administer an enema: This is unrelated to PID management and could worsen discomfort without addressing the infection.

• Place the adolescent on bedrest in semi-Fowler’s position: This is more appropriate for appendicitis or abdominal surgery; PID management focuses on antibiotics, comfort, and symptom control instead.

• Rebound tenderness: While possible in appendicitis, this is not a priority assessment in PID, where infection signs and pelvic pain predominate.

• Presence of a Cullen sign: Cullen’s sign indicates intra-abdominal bleeding, often from ruptured ectopic pregnancy or pancreatitis, not PID.

• Irritation of the phrenic nerve: Phrenic nerve irritation, often causing shoulder tip pain, is associated with a ruptured spleen or ectopic pregnancy, and is not typical of PID.


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Question 4:

A nurse is reinforcing the provider's explanation about treatment options to the parents of a 1-month-old who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 5:

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a child who weighs 18 kg (39.7 lb) and ingested six 500 mg acetaminophen tablets 4 hr ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 6:

1400:

14-year-old adolescent presents with abdominal pain and cramping with hematochezia, fever, and anorexia. Adolescent rates pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client is underweight with a BMI of 19.6.

1405:

  • Temperature 38° C (100.4° F)
  • Heart rate 96/min
  • Respiratory rate 18/min
  • Blood pressure 104/72 mm Hg
  • Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

1430:

C-reactive protein 3.2 mg/dL (less than 1.0 mg/dL)

Albumin 3.4 g/dL (3.5 to 5.0 g/dL)

Hemoglobin 11 g/dL (10 to 15.5 g/dL)

Hematocrit 33% (32% to 44%)

RBC count 4.0 x 10°/μL (4.0 to 5.5 x 10/μL)

WBC count 13,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

Platelets 275,000/mm3 (150,000 to 400,000/mm3)

Potassium 3.5 mEq/L (3.4 to 4.7 mEq/L))

Magnesium 1.4 mEq/L (1.4 to 1.7 mEq/L)

Total calcium 9.0 mg/dL (8.8 to 10.8 mg/dL)

Stool:

Positive for occult blood (negative)

Positive for leukocytes 4/high-power field (less than 2/high- power field)

Negative for helicobacter pylori (negative)

A nurse is caring for an adolescent in the emergency department (ED).

Exhibits

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specity what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

• Crohn's disease: The client’s presentation of hematochezia, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia, elevated CRP, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, and positive stool leukocytes points toward Crohn’s, an inflammatory bowel disease with systemic and intestinal involvement.

• Encourage a high-protein diet: Chronic inflammation and malabsorption in Crohn’s disease contribute to weight loss and muscle wasting, so a high-protein diet supports tissue repair and nutritional repletion.

• Record dietary intake: Careful documentation helps identify food triggers, ensures adequate caloric and protein intake, and provides a baseline for evaluating nutritional support interventions.

• Hemoglobin level: Clients with Crohn’s are prone to gastrointestinal blood loss, putting them at risk for anemia; trending hemoglobin values helps track disease activity and bleeding severity.

• Albumin level: Hypoalbuminemia in Crohn’s reflects both malnutrition and protein-losing enteropathy; monitoring this value provides insight into nutritional status and disease progression.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices

• Appendicitis: Appendicitis usually presents with localized right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis without chronic systemic signs like anemia or hypoalbuminemia, which are more consistent with Crohn’s disease.

• Peptic ulcer disease: Ulcers typically cause epigastric pain and possible melena, but they do not explain systemic inflammation, positive stool leukocytes, or low albumin seen in this case.

• Celiac disease: Celiac often presents with diarrhea, bloating, and steatorrhea, but this client’s hematochezia, fever, and elevated CRP are more consistent with inflammatory bowel disease.

• Administer an enema: This intervention is contraindicated in clients with bowel inflammation due to risk of worsening irritation or triggering perforation.

• Provide a gluten-free diet: While effective in celiac disease, it does not address the inflammation and malabsorption specific to Crohn’s disease.

• Prepare for surgery: Surgery is not the first-line intervention in Crohn’s unless complications like obstruction or perforation occur; conservative management is prioritized initially.

• Abrupt decrease in pain level: This is concerning for ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are not primary features of Crohn’s disease progression.

• Abdominal rigidity: This is a sign of peritonitis, usually from perforation, which is not the presenting concern for this client with Crohn’s disease.

• Presence of steatorrhea: Steatorrhea is more typical of celiac disease or pancreatic insufficiency rather than Crohn’s, which more commonly presents with bloody stools.


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Question 7:

0900:

Child admitted to unit in vaso-occlusive crisis. Child reports pain in the right knee as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Right knee is swollen and warm to the touch. Pulses are +2 and capillary refill 2 seconds in all extremities.

1000:

Notified provider regarding laboratory results. Child reports pain in the right knee is now 10 on a scale of 0 to 10.

0900:

  • Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)
  • Heart rate 90/min
  • Respiratory rate 22/min
  • Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
  • Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

1000:

  • Temperature 37.3° C (99.1° F)
  • Heart rate 98/min
  • Respiratory rate 25/min
  • Blood pressure 120/74 mm Hg
  • Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

1000:

WBC count 9,500/mm3 (5,0000 to 10,000/mm3)

Hgb 9 g/dL (10 to 15.5 g/dL)

Hct 18% (32% to 449%)

Platelets 450,000/mm3 (150,000 to 400,000/mm3)

A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client who has sickle cell disease.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for

due to the child's.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Rationale for correct choices:

• IV hydromorphone: The child is in a vaso-occlusive crisis, where severe pain is the hallmark finding. IV opioids such as hydromorphone are the treatment of choice for rapid pain relief when pain reaches severe levels unrelieved by oral medications.

• Pain: The child reports escalating pain from 7/10 to 10/10 localized in the right knee with swelling and warmth, consistent with vaso-occlusion. Pain control is the immediate priority because inadequate management can worsen stress and sickling.

Rationale for incorrect choices:

• Fresh frozen plasma transfusion: This is not indicated in sickle cell crisis, as there is no coagulopathy or clotting factor deficiency. Plasma transfusion does not treat anemia or vaso-occlusive pain.

• Factor VIII: This therapy is specific to hemophilia A, which involves a clotting factor deficiency. It has no role in the management of sickle cell disease or vaso-occlusive crisis.

• Platelets: The child’s platelet count is elevated at 450,000/mm³, which reflects a reactive process but not a deficiency. Thrombocytopenia is not present, so platelet replacement is unnecessary.


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Question 8:

1200:

Caregiver reports toddler has had diarrhea and decreased appetite for 3 days. Toddler alert, uncooperative but can be consoled by caregiver.

Weight 12.7 kg (28 lb). Oral mucosa pink, slightly moist. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations unlabored with clear breath sounds. Abdomen soft, no masses, hyperactive bowel sounds. Liquid stool in diaper. Diaper area reddened. Capillary refill 2 seconds. IV started and infusing at 45 mL/hr.

1400:

Caregiver reports toddler cried themselves to sleep. Reports no tears.

1600:

Toddler continues to sleep. IV site intact and patent. Awakens briefly with vital signs, vomits x1, and is lethargic. Capillary refill 4 seconds. Extremities cool.

1200:

  • Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F) tympanic
  • Heart rate 108/min
  • Respiratory rate 28/min
  • Blood pressure unable to obtain secondary to crying

1600:

  • Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F) tympanic
  • Respiratory rate 26/min
  • Heart rate 112/min
  • Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg

1600, 4 hr totals:

IV intake 180 mL

Oral intake none (refuses)

Urine output unable to determine - 3 liquid stools in diapers

Stool Output 100 mL

A nurse is caring for a toddler admitted to the hospital.

Exhibits

Click to highlight the findings that require immediate follow-up. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.

Body system

Findings

Respiratory

Respiratory rate 26/min

Cardiovascular

Heart rate 112/min

Capillary refill 4 seconds

Gastrointestinal

Hyperactive bowel sounds

Integumentary

Diaper area reddened

Extremities cool

Reports no tears

Neurologic

Lethargic

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Rationale:

• Respiratory rate 26/min: A respiratory rate in the mid-20s is within the normal range for toddlers (20–30/min). The child shows no increased work of breathing, so this does not require immediate intervention.

• Heart rate 112/min: This heart rate falls within the normal toddler range of 90–140 beats per minute. It does not indicate tachycardia or circulatory collapse at this time. Therefore, it is not a priority concern.

• Capillary refill 4 seconds: A refill time greater than 2 seconds indicates impaired circulation and reduced tissue perfusion. This is often seen in dehydration or hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate intervention. Prolonged refill signals worsening cardiovascular compromise.

• Hyperactive bowel sounds: Increased bowel sounds are expected in the setting of diarrhea and rapid peristalsis. While uncomfortable, this finding is not life-threatening and does not require urgent follow-up.

• Diaper area reddened: Redness in the diaper area is most likely due to frequent stools causing skin irritation. While it requires nursing care, it is a localized issue and not an urgent systemic concern.

• Extremities cool: Cool extremities suggest peripheral vasoconstriction as the body tries to preserve blood flow to vital organs. This points to inadequate perfusion from fluid loss. If not addressed quickly, it may progress to shock.

• Reports no tears: Crying without tears is a clear sign of moderate to severe dehydration in children. It indicates the body no longer has adequate fluid reserves to maintain normal secretions. This finding requires prompt replacement of fluids.

• Lethargic: Lethargy signals a change in neurological status, which is a late sign of significant dehydration. It reflects decreased cerebral perfusion from hypovolemia. This is a critical finding that warrants urgent follow-up.


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Question 9:

0900:

A school-age child has come to the clinic accompanied by their guardians. The guardians are concerned about their child's diet and health. The child gets tired quickly and experiences headaches while reading. The guardians report they eat a primarily vegetarian diet. The child drinks a lot of milk. At school, the child has poor memory and attention. The child appears to have pallor relative to their genetic background.

0920:

Blood drawn for hemoglobin level.

1000:

Guardians provided with instructions regarding the child's dietary intake and medications.

0900:

  • Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)
  • Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg
  • Heart rate 120/min
  • Respiratory rate 30/min
  • Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

0920:

Hgb 8.0 g/dL (10 to 15.5 g/dL)

1000:

Ferrous sulfate 3 mg/kg three times per day

Ascorbic acid two times per day orally

A nurse is caring for a school-age child.

Exhibits

For each body system below, click to specify the statement the nurse should include in the teaching. Choose the most likely response for the dropdown(s) in the table below by choosing from the lists of options.

Body system

Potential Teachings

Gastrointestinal

Dental

Hematological

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Rationale for Correct Choices

• Give iron with vitamin C to increase absorption: Vitamin C enhances the solubility and bioavailability of iron, which is especially important for a child on a vegetarian diet where non-heme iron predominates. Taking iron with citrus juice or ascorbic acid reduces the risk of poor absorption and supports correction of anemia.

• Give iron through a straw to prevent staining of teeth: Liquid iron supplements can cause temporary discoloration of tooth enamel. Using a straw minimizes direct contact of iron with the teeth, helping to preserve dental appearance while ensuring the child still receives the full dose.

• Increase intake of iron-rich foods such as beans, leafy greens, and fortified cereals: A vegetarian child should be encouraged to consume a variety of non-heme iron foods. Combining these with vitamin C sources improves absorption and supports bone marrow production of healthy red blood cells.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices

• Give iron with milk to reduce stomach upset: Milk contains calcium and casein, both of which inhibit iron absorption, reducing the effectiveness of therapy.

• Administer iron on an empty stomach with no fluids: Iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach, but giving it without fluids increases gastric irritation and may cause poor adherence in children.

• Encourage brushing with baking soda after iron administration: Baking soda is abrasive and not recommended for children, as it may damage developing enamel while not significantly reducing iron staining.

• Mix iron with milk to reduce metallic taste: Mixing with milk impairs absorption, worsening anemia, and undermines the therapeutic purpose of supplementation.

• Restrict protein sources to avoid overworking bone marrow: Protein is essential for hemoglobin synthesis and red blood cell production; restricting it would worsen the child’s anemic state.

• Reduce iron-containing foods until medication is completed: Limiting dietary iron would prevent recovery from anemia and contradicts the goal of maximizing iron intake during supplementation.


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Question 10:

Day 1:

6 x 6 cm indurated area on the left calf. Warmth and tenderness noted over the area. Client reports pain while walking as 6 on scale of 0 to 10. Small area of abscess, culture obtained. Wound borders marked per policy and procedure. Peripheral IV initiated, antibiotic administered as prescribed.

Day 2:

Warmth and tenderness persist, 5 x 5 cm indurated area noted. Adolescent ambulated in hall twice, tolerated well.

Day 1:

  • Temperature 38.8° C (101.8° F)
  • Heart rate 110/min
  • Respiratory rate 18/min
  • Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg

Day 2:

  • Temperature 37.6° C (99.7° F)
  •  Heart rate 100/min
  • Respiratory rate 18/min
  • Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg

Day 1:

Hgb 15 g/dL (10 to 15.5 g/dL)

Hct 40% (32% to 44%)

WBC count 14,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

Wound culture pending (Negative)

Day 2:

WBC count 15,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

A nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who has cellulitis of the left lower calf.

Exhibits

The nurse is assessing the adolescent 24 hr after the initial visit. How should the nurse interpret the findings?

For each finding, click to specify whether the finding is an indication of potential improvement or an indication of potential worsening condition. There must be at least 1 selection in every row. There does not need to be a selection in every column.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Rationale:

• Weight-bearing ability on the affected leg: The adolescent was able to ambulate in the hall twice with good tolerance, which suggests improved mobility despite persistent tenderness. This indicates that pain and function are gradually improving.

• Temperature: The fever decreased from 38.8°C on Day 1 to 37.6°C on Day 2, showing resolution of the systemic response to infection. This suggests the antibiotic therapy is beginning to take effect.

• WBC count: The count rose from 14,000/mm³ to 15,000/mm³ in 24 hours, which reflects a persistent or worsening inflammatory and infectious process. This indicates the infection may not yet be under control.

• Wound assessment: The indurated area on the calf decreased in size from 6 x 6 cm on Day 1 to 5 x 5 cm on Day 2. A decrease in the size of the inflamed area indicates that the cellulitis is responding to treatment and resolving.


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