RN Maternal Newborn 2023

ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023

Total Questions : 40

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Question 1: View

Which of the following actions should a nurse plan to take for a postpartum client who expresses a desire to follow traditional beliefs regarding the balance of yin and yang for postpartum care?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Assisting with showering twice daily does not support traditional yin-yang postpartum practices, which prioritize warmth to restore energy balance and promote healing. Frequent exposure to water, especially if cool, may introduce cold or dampness, disrupting the body’s qi and hindering recovery. This practice is not scientifically aligned with the warming principles of yin-yang balance, which are critical for postpartum recuperation in traditional Chinese medicine.

Choice B reason: Providing a warm beverage aligns with yin-yang principles, as warmth supports the body’s yang energy, aiding recovery by promoting blood flow and energy restoration. In traditional Chinese medicine, warm fluids help balance the body’s qi, counteracting the cold yin state of postpartum. This practice supports physiological healing by maintaining hydration and warmth, essential for tissue repair and energy balance.

Choice C reason: Maintaining a cool environment contradicts yin-yang postpartum care, which emphasizes warmth to restore energy balance. A cool environment may exacerbate the cold yin state, potentially slowing recovery by reducing blood flow and energy circulation. Scientifically, a cooler environment does not support the thermoregulatory needs of a postpartum body, which requires warmth to promote healing and comfort.

Choice D reason: Applying ice packs to the perineal area introduces cold, which opposes yin-yang principles that favor warmth to restore balance and promote healing. Cold can constrict blood vessels, potentially slowing tissue repair. While ice may reduce swelling, it conflicts with traditional practices that prioritize warming therapies to support postpartum recovery and energy flow in the body.


Question 2: View

Which of the following information should a nurse include in the teaching to the parent of a 1-day-old newborn with a prescription for gavage feeding?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering 20 mL per feeding is not universally appropriate, as gavage feeding volumes depend on the newborn’s weight, gestational age, and medical condition. Standardized volumes risk over- or underfeeding, potentially causing gastric distress or inadequate nutrition. Neonatal physiology requires individualized feeding plans to support digestion and growth, guided by medical prescriptions and clinical assessment.

Choice B reason: Nonnutritive sucking, such as on a pacifier, supports neurological development and soothes newborns during gavage feeding. It stimulates the suck-swallow reflex, enhancing gastrointestinal motility and reducing feeding intolerance. Scientifically, this practice promotes oral motor skills, aiding transition to oral feeding, and provides comfort, which is critical for neonatal stress reduction and developmental progress.

Choice C reason: Placing a newborn in a supine position after gavage feeding increases the risk of aspiration, as milk may reflux into the airway. Neonatal physiology favors a side-lying or prone position to facilitate gastric emptying and reduce regurgitation. This position supports safer digestion and minimizes respiratory complications, aligning with evidence-based neonatal care practices for gavage-fed infants.

Choice D reason: Cluster feedings mimic natural breastfeeding patterns, supporting neonatal nutritional needs and growth. Newborns often feed in clusters to meet caloric demands, stabilize blood glucose, and promote weight gain. This practice aligns with neonatal physiology, as the stomach’s small capacity benefits from frequent, smaller feedings, enhancing digestion and nutrient absorption in gavage-fed infants.


Question 3: View

Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate when reviewing a client's rubella titer of 1:8 at her second prenatal visit?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Stating that rubella vaccination prevents breastfeeding is incorrect. The rubella vaccine, a live-attenuated virus, is safe for postpartum administration in non-immune mothers, as it does not significantly excrete in breast milk or harm the infant. Breastfeeding supports neonatal immunity through maternal antibodies, and this statement misrepresents vaccine safety and breastfeeding physiology.

Choice B reason: Repeating a rubella titer in the third trimester is unnecessary unless new exposure is suspected. A titer of 1:8 indicates susceptibility, requiring postpartum immunization, not repeated testing. Serological testing monitors antibody levels, but rubella immunity status typically remains stable during pregnancy unless infection occurs, making routine retesting scientifically unjustified in this context.

Choice C reason: Administering rubella immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated, as it is a live vaccine that poses a theoretical risk to the fetus. A titer of 1:8 indicates susceptibility, warranting postpartum vaccination. The immune system’s response to live vaccines could potentially cross the placenta, affecting fetal development, so immunization is deferred until after delivery.

Choice D reason: A rubella titer of 1:8 indicates susceptibility, as titers below 1:10 suggest insufficient antibodies to confer immunity. Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause congenital rubella syndrome, leading to fetal anomalies. This statement accurately reflects the need for postpartum immunization to protect future pregnancies, aligning with serological evidence and prenatal care guidelines.


Question 4: View

Which of the following actions should a nurse take for a newborn who has herpes simplex virus as a result of in utero transmission?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Immediately bathing a newborn with herpes simplex virus (HSV) is not recommended, as it may spread lesions or increase infection risk. HSV, a viral infection, requires antiviral therapy, not bathing, to manage cutaneous lesions. Bathing could disrupt skin integrity, potentially exacerbating viral spread or secondary bacterial infections in a compromised neonate.

Choice B reason: Administering ampicillin, a bacterial antibiotic, is ineffective against HSV, a viral infection. Neonatal HSV requires antiviral drugs like acyclovir to target viral replication. Ampicillin addresses bacterial infections, such as group B streptococcus, but lacks efficacy against herpesviruses, making it an inappropriate treatment choice for this condition based on microbiological principles.

Choice C reason: Withholding breastfeeding is unnecessary unless active HSV lesions are present on the breast. HSV transmission via breast milk is rare, and breastfeeding supports neonatal immunity. If the mother has no active lesions, breastfeeding is safe with proper hygiene, as the virus primarily spreads through direct contact with lesions, not milk.

Choice D reason: Initiating contact precautions is critical for neonatal HSV, as the virus spreads through direct contact with lesions or secretions. Precautions, including gloves and gowns, prevent transmission to healthcare workers and other patients. HSV’s high infectivity in neonates, due to immature immunity, necessitates strict isolation to control viral spread in clinical settings.


Question 5: View

Which of the following complications should a nurse monitor the newborn for following delivery of a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has preterm premature rupture of membranes?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Polycythemia, an excess of red blood cells, is associated with conditions like chronic hypoxia or twin-to-twin transfusion, not preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). PPROM increases infection risk, not hematocrit levels. Neonatal physiology in PPROM is more likely to involve inflammatory responses than erythrocytosis, making polycythemia an unlikely complication in this context.

Choice B reason: Fractured clavicle typically occurs during difficult vaginal deliveries, particularly with shoulder dystocia, not PPROM. PPROM predisposes to infection due to prolonged amniotic fluid exposure, not mechanical trauma. The newborn’s skeletal system faces no increased fracture risk from PPROM, as it is unrelated to delivery mechanics or bone integrity.

Choice C reason: Meconium aspiration occurs when a newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid, typically in term or post-term infants under stress. PPROM at 35 weeks increases infection risk, not meconium passage, as preterm infants rarely produce meconium. The complication is unrelated to PPROM’s primary pathophysiological concern of infection due to membrane rupture.

Choice D reason: Sepsis is a significant risk in PPROM, as ruptured membranes allow bacterial ascent from the vagina, leading to intra-amniotic infection. Preterm newborns have immature immune systems, increasing susceptibility to pathogens like group B streptococcus. Monitoring for sepsis is critical, as it can cause systemic inflammation, organ dysfunction, and high mortality if untreated.


Question 6: View

Which of the following information should a nurse plan to include when teaching a client about Sitz baths?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Tightening gluteal muscles during a Sitz bath is not recommended, as it may increase pelvic tension and reduce the bath’s therapeutic effect. Sitz baths promote perineal healing by improving blood flow and relaxing tissues. Muscle contraction could counteract vasodilation, impeding tissue repair and pain relief in the postpartum period.

Choice B reason: Placing a bag above the toilet bowl is irrelevant to Sitz bath administration, which involves soaking the perineal area in warm water. This instruction likely refers to perineal irrigation devices, not Sitz baths. The bath’s warm water promotes vasodilation and healing, and improper equipment use does not support the physiological benefits of soaking.

Choice C reason: Rinsing with a clean towel after a Sitz bath ensures hygiene by removing residual bacteria or debris from the perineal area. This practice supports wound healing and infection prevention, as warm water soaks soften tissues and promote circulation. Proper drying with a clean towel minimizes moisture-related bacterial growth, enhancing postpartum recovery.

Choice D reason: Remaining in a Sitz bath for 45 minutes is excessive and may cause skin maceration or discomfort. Typical Sitz baths last 10-20 minutes to promote perineal blood flow and healing without overexposure to moisture. Prolonged soaking risks skin breakdown, counteracting the therapeutic benefits of warmth and hygiene in postpartum care.


Question 7: View

Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching to the parents of a newborn about the critical congenital heart disease screening?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Critical congenital heart disease (CCHD) screening uses pulse oximetry, not a heel blood sample. Blood sampling is for metabolic screening, not heart defects. Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation non-invasively, detecting shunting or cyanotic defects, aligning with CCHD screening’s focus on circulatory assessment.

Choice B reason: CCHD screening is typically performed at 24-48 hours of age, not 6-12 hours, to ensure stable postnatal circulation. Early testing may yield false positives due to transitional physiology. Pulse oximetry at the correct timing accurately detects critical heart defects, per neonatal screening protocols.

Choice C reason: CCHD screening compares oxygen saturation in the upper (right hand) and lower (foot) extremities using pulse oximetry to detect congenital heart defects causing differential cyanosis. A significant difference indicates potential shunting or ductal-dependent lesions, requiring further evaluation, aligning with the physiological basis of CCHD screening.

Choice D reason: CCHD screening results are immediate via pulse oximetry, not delayed 1-2 weeks. Real-time oxygen saturation readings identify potential heart defects, enabling prompt referral for echocardiography. Delayed results apply to metabolic screening, not CCHD, which relies on instant physiological data, per neonatal diagnostic protocols.


Question 8: View

Which of the following risk factors should a nurse include when planning a class on postpartum depression for a group of clients who are pregnant?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Postterm birth, beyond 42 weeks, increases risks like fetal distress or meconium aspiration but is not a direct risk factor for postpartum depression. Psychological stressors, not gestational duration, primarily drive depression. Hormonal changes and stress are key contributors, and postterm birth lacks a direct neurochemical or psychosocial link to depression.

Choice B reason: Middle-class family income is not a specific risk factor for postpartum depression. Socioeconomic status may influence access to care, but depression is more closely tied to hormonal, psychological, and social stressors. Income alone does not directly alter neuroendocrine pathways or psychosocial dynamics that contribute to postpartum depression risk in pregnant clients.

Choice C reason: Unplanned pregnancy is a significant risk factor for postpartum depression, as it increases psychological stress and anxiety. Stress hormones like cortisol can exacerbate mood dysregulation, and lack of preparedness may strain coping mechanisms. This psychosocial stressor disrupts emotional stability, increasing the likelihood of depressive symptoms in the postpartum period.

Choice D reason: Working full-time outside the home is not a direct risk factor for postpartum depression. While work-life balance may contribute to stress, it lacks a specific neurochemical or psychosocial link to depression compared to factors like unplanned pregnancy. Hormonal and emotional stressors are stronger predictors of postpartum mood disorders.


Question 9: View

Which of the following statements by a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and is Rh-negative indicates an understanding of the teaching about the Rho(D) immune globulin injection?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered after a miscarriage in Rh-negative women to prevent isoimmunization, as fetal blood mixing can occur. This immunoglobulin neutralizes Rh-positive fetal antigens, preventing maternal antibody formation that could affect future pregnancies. The immune response could otherwise lead to hemolytic disease in subsequent Rh-positive fetuses.

Choice B reason: Administering Rho(D) immune globulin at 12 weeks is not standard practice. It is typically given at 28 weeks and post-delivery or after events like miscarriage. Early administration is unnecessary unless a sensitizing event occurs, as maternal-fetal blood mixing is rare before the third trimester, per immunological principles.

Choice C reason: Rho(D) immune globulin does not prevent preterm labor, which is driven by uterine or hormonal factors. The injection targets Rh isoimmunization by neutralizing Rh-positive fetal antigens. Preterm labor involves prostaglandin and oxytocin pathways, unrelated to Rh sensitization, making this statement irrelevant to the immunoglobulin’s immunological mechanism.

Choice D reason: Rho(D) immune globulin is unnecessary post-delivery if the baby is Rh-negative, as no sensitization occurs without Rh-positive fetal blood. The injection is given only if the baby is Rh-positive to prevent maternal antibody formation. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of Rh immunology and isoimmunization risk in pregnancy.


Question 10: View

Which of the following findings indicates that epidural treatment is effective for a client who is receiving it for continuous labor analgesia?

Explanation

Choice A reason: Bladder distention indicates an adverse effect of epidural analgesia, as nerve blockade impairs bladder sensation, leading to retention. This is not a sign of effective pain relief but a complication requiring monitoring or catheterization to prevent urinary tract infections or bladder overdistension, per epidural side effect management.

Choice B reason: Reporting slight pressure with contractions indicates effective epidural analgesia, as it reduces pain while preserving some sensation, allowing awareness of labor progress. This reflects targeted nerve blockade, alleviating visceral pain via opioid and anesthetic action, aligning with the goal of balanced labor analgesia without complete sensory loss.

Choice C reason: Inability to move legs or feet suggests excessive epidural blockade, a complication rather than effective analgesia. Optimal epidurals provide pain relief with minimal motor impairment, allowing mobility. Complete paralysis risks prolonged recovery or injury, not reflecting the therapeutic goal of labor pain management, per anesthesia protocols.

Choice D reason: A 20 mm Hg systolic blood pressure decrease indicates hypotension, an adverse effect of epidural analgesia due to sympathetic blockade. This risks reduced placental perfusion, not effective pain relief. It requires intervention like fluids, contrary to the goal of stable analgesia with minimal maternal or fetal impact.


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