Ati lpn pharmacology 2023 retake 1

Ati lpn pharmacology 2023 retake 1

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Question 1: View

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client.

Click to highlight the findings that require immediate follow-up as contraindications to the prescribed prescription. To deselect a finding click on the finding again.

Body System

Findings

Vital Signs/General History

  • Temperature 36.4° C (97.6° F), oral
  • Heart rate 75/min
  • Respiratory rate 16/min
  • Blood pressure 100/74mm Hg
  • Oxygen saturation 99% on room air
  • Client is a vegetarian and takes a multivitamin daily
  • Client reports having three to four alcoholic beverages a couple times per week

Integumentary

  • Skin color is consistent with genetic background. No rashes or lesions. The client varicose veins.

Cardiovascular/ Respiratory

  • S1 S2 auscultated. No murmurs. All peripheral pulses 2+ Lung sounds clear bilaterally

Gastrointestinal/Genitourinary

  • Abdomen soft, nontender. Normoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants. Last bowel movement was 3 days ago. Voids four to five times a day. Urine is clear, yellow, and odourless. Last menstrual period was 3 months ago

Neurologic/Musculoskeletal

  • Alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Client takes diazepam as needed for anxiety. Client has full range of motion and is able to maintain flexion against resistance in all four extremities

Explanation

  • Client reports having three to four alcoholic beverages a couple times per week. Phenytoin metabolism is significantly affected by alcohol consumption. Chronic alcohol use increases phenytoin clearance, leading to subtherapeutic drug levels and seizure breakthrough. Conversely, acute alcohol intake inhibits phenytoin metabolism, increasing the risk of toxicity. The client should be counseled to avoid alcohol while on phenytoin therapy.
  • Client takes diazepam as needed for anxiety. Diazepam is a CNS depressant that interacts with phenytoin, increasing sedation and the risk of respiratory depression. Both medications can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination, raising the risk of falls and injury. The provider should assess whether diazepam should be discontinued or adjusted when initiating phenytoin therapy.
  • Last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Phenytoin is Pregnancy Category D, meaning it poses a significant teratogenic risk, including fetal hydantoin syndrome. The missed menstrual period suggests a possible pregnancy, which must be evaluated before starting phenytoin. A pregnancy test should be performed, and alternative antiseizure medications may need to be considered if pregnancy is confirmed.
  • Client is a vegetarian and takes a multivitamin daily. Phenytoin interferes with the absorption of folic acid and vitamin D, both of which are crucial for bone health and red blood cell production. Vegetarians are already at higher risk for folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, making supplementation essential. However, multivitamins containing calcium, magnesium, or iron can decrease phenytoin absorption, reducing its effectiveness. The provider should review the multivitamin’s composition and adjust dosing schedules to prevent interactions.
  • Temperature 36.4°C (97.6°F), oral. The client’s temperature is within normal range and does not indicate infection or systemic concerns that would affect phenytoin therapy.
  • Heart rate 75/min, Respiratory rate 16/min, Blood pressure 100/74 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation 99% on room air.
    All vital signs are stable and do not indicate hemodynamic instability, respiratory depression, or cardiovascular issues that would contraindicate phenytoin administration.
  • Skin color is consistent with genetic background. No rashes or lesions. The client has varicose veins. There are no signs of drug hypersensitivity reactions or dermatologic conditions that would require stopping phenytoin therapy.
  • S1 S2 auscultated. No murmurs. All peripheral pulses 2+. Lung sounds clear bilaterally.
    There are no cardiopulmonary concerns that would indicate contraindications to phenytoin.
  • Abdomen soft, nontender. Normoactive bowel sounds in all 4 quadrants. Last bowel movement was 3 days ago. Voids four to five times a day. Urine is clear, yellow, and odorless. Mild constipation is noted, but this is not a contraindication for phenytoin. The client should be encouraged to increase fiber and fluid intake to prevent worsening constipation, which can sometimes be a side effect of phenytoin.
  • Alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Client has full range of motion and is able to maintain flexion against resistance in all four extremities. There are no neurological deficits requiring immediate intervention, and the client's baseline mental status is intact.

Question 2: View

A nurse in the emergency department is assisting in the care of a client.

Click to highlight the findings that require immediate follow-up. To deselect a finding click on the finding again.

Nurses Notes

1630:

Called to client's room by emergency call bell. Client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Client is short of breath, intercostal retractions visible. Wheezing auscultated throughout lung fields, Diffuse, raised rash present on trunk. Abdomen soft, nontender

Vital Signs

1630:

Temperature 38.3°C (101°F)

Heart rate 110/min

Respiratory rate 30/min

Blood pressure 90/55 mmHg

Oxygen saturation 91% on room air

Explanation

  • Shortness of breath. The client is experiencing respiratory distress, which could indicate a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis). Immediate intervention is needed to prevent airway compromise and respiratory failure.
  • Intercostal retractions. Retractions occur when breathing is labored, suggesting airway obstruction or bronchoconstriction. This is a sign of worsening respiratory distress, requiring urgent medical attention.
  • Wheezing auscultated throughout lung fields. Wheezing suggests bronchospasm, which is common in anaphylaxis and asthma attacks. The presence of diffuse wheezing indicates that the airways are narrowing, making breathing more difficult.
  • Diffuse, raised rash present on trunk. A new-onset rash following antibiotic administration raises suspicion for anaphylaxis or a severe allergic reaction. Immediate treatment with antihistamines and corticosteroids may be required.
  • Respiratory rate 30/min. The increased respiratory rate indicates that the client is compensating for airway constriction and hypoxia. This is an early warning sign of impending respiratory failure if not treated promptly.
  • Blood pressure 90/55 mmHg. The drop in blood pressure suggests anaphylactic shock, where vasodilation and fluid leakage from capillaries lead to hypotension. Immediate administration of epinephrine is necessary to prevent cardiovascular collapse.
  • Oxygen saturation 91% on room air. A decrease in oxygen saturation indicates impaired gas exchange, likely due to airway swelling and bronchospasm. Supplemental oxygen therapy should be provided to prevent further desaturation.

Question 3: View

A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client through an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Explanation

A. Add the medications to the enteral feeding bag. Medications should not be mixed with enteral feeding formula as this can alter drug absorption, cause tube clogging, or result in medication interactions. Each medication should be administered separately to ensure proper effectiveness.

B. Check for gastric residual 15 min after administering the medications. Gastric residual volume (GRV) should be checked before medication administration to assess delayed gastric emptying. Checking it after administration is unnecessary and may disrupt medication absorption without clinical benefit.

C. Keep the client's head elevated 15° while administering the medications. The head of the bed should be elevated at least 30–45 degrees, not 15 degrees, to reduce aspiration risk and promote medication passage. Insufficient elevation increases the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia.

D. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water between each medication. Flushing with 30 mL of water between medications prevents tube clogging and ensures each drug is properly delivered. It also minimizes drug interactions by preventing medications from mixing within the tube.


Question 4: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client who reports nausea and has vomited clear emesis. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Explanation

A. Meperidine. Meperidine is an opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain. It does not treat nausea and vomiting and can worsen these symptoms by delaying gastric emptying. Opioids also depress the central nervous system, which may cause dizziness and sedation.

B. Diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures. It has no antiemetic effects and does not relieve nausea or vomiting. Instead, it can cause dizziness and drowsiness, which may further discomfort the client.

C. Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Since the client’s nausea is not opioid-related, naloxone would not be beneficial. Its administration can also cause withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients.

D. Promethazine. Promethazine is an antiemetic that blocks histamine and dopamine receptors in the brain, reducing nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used for motion sickness, post-surgical nausea, and gastrointestinal illnesses, making it the appropriate choice for this client.


Question 5: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has ulcerative colitis and is receiving sulfasalazine. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?

Explanation

A. Anorexia. Anorexia is a common side effect of sulfasalazine and is usually mild. It occurs due to the drug’s gastrointestinal effects but does not require immediate intervention. Managing symptoms with dietary modifications or taking the medication with food can help alleviate discomfort.

B. Arthralgia. Joint pain (arthralgia) can develop as a side effect of sulfasalazine, sometimes due to a drug-induced lupus-like reaction. Although it can cause discomfort, it is not immediately life-threatening. Monitoring symptoms and adjusting treatment may help manage this condition.

C. Nausea. Nausea frequently occurs with sulfasalazine use and is typically mild. It is often dose-dependent and can be managed by taking the medication with meals. While persistent nausea may require adjustments, it is not a medical emergency.

D. Wheezing. Wheezing suggests a hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis, a life-threatening emergency. Sulfasalazine contains a sulfa component, which may trigger bronchospasm, angioedema, or respiratory distress. Immediate intervention, including discontinuing the drug and administering emergency treatment, is necessary.


Question 6: View

A nurse in a clinic receives a telephone call from a client who has tuberculosis and was prescribed rifampin 3 days ago. The client reports, "My saliva and tears are red. What should I do?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Explanation

A. "This is an expected adverse effect of the medication." Rifampin commonly causes red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including saliva, tears, urine, and sweat. This occurs due to the drug's excretion and is harmless. It does not indicate internal bleeding or organ dysfunction. Clients should be educated about this side effect in advance to prevent alarm and unnecessary discontinuation of the medication, as adherence to tuberculosis treatment is crucial.

B. "Stop taking the medication. You are having an allergic reaction." The red discoloration caused by rifampin is a known side effect, not an allergic reaction. A true allergic response would include symptoms such as rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing. Stopping rifampin without medical advice could disrupt tuberculosis treatment, leading to drug resistance or treatment failure, making this an inappropriate recommendation.

C. "This condition will only last a couple of days." The discoloration of bodily fluids persists throughout the duration of rifampin therapy. Tuberculosis treatment can last several months, so the client should expect this effect to continue as long as they are taking the medication. Providing incorrect information may cause the client to worry unnecessarily when the discoloration does not resolve quickly.

D. "Taking the medication with red meat will cause this adverse effect." The discoloration is due to rifampin’s chemical properties and metabolism, not dietary intake. Red-colored foods, such as red meat or berries, do not influence this effect. Providing inaccurate dietary information may lead to unnecessary dietary restrictions, which are not needed for managing this side effect.


Question 7: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client before administering a hepatitis B immunization. The nurse should withhold the immunization if the client is allergic to which of the following substances?

Explanation

A. Baker's yeast. The hepatitis B vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with a severe allergy to baker’s yeast. This is because the vaccine is produced using Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker’s yeast), which can trigger an allergic reaction in susceptible individuals. Symptoms of a yeast allergy may include rash, difficulty breathing, and anaphylaxis, requiring the vaccine to be withheld and an alternative plan considered.

B. Nuts. Nut allergies are not related to the hepatitis B vaccine, as it does not contain nut-derived ingredients. While nut allergies can be severe and cause anaphylaxis, they do not pose a specific risk in the administration of this vaccine. Therefore, the presence of a nut allergy alone does not require withholding the immunization.

C. Wheat. A wheat allergy is not a contraindication for the hepatitis B vaccine. Wheat allergies primarily cause reactions to gluten-containing foods or products but do not have any connection to the components used in the production of the vaccine. The vaccine can be safely administered to individuals with wheat allergies.

D. Egg yolk. While some vaccines, such as the influenza vaccine, may be derived from egg proteins, the hepatitis B vaccine is not produced using egg-based components. An allergy to egg yolk does not pose a risk for adverse reactions to this vaccine, so it should not be withheld in individuals with an egg allergy.


Question 8: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client who received diphenhydramine 1 hr ago after developing an allergic reaction to trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Explanation

A. "My appetite is increased." Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that primarily treats allergic reactions by blocking histamine receptors. While antihistamines can sometimes cause increased appetite as a side effect, this is not an indicator of effectiveness in treating an allergic reaction.

B. "I don't have a headache anymore." While diphenhydramine may help with headaches due to its sedative and antihistamine effects, headache relief is not the primary goal when treating an allergic reaction. The effectiveness of diphenhydramine in this scenario should be assessed based on improvements in allergic symptoms rather than headache relief.

C. "My voice is no longer hoarse." Hoarseness can be a sign of airway involvement due to allergic reaction-related swelling (laryngeal edema). Diphenhydramine reduces histamine-induced inflammation, which can help resolve airway symptoms. Improvement in hoarseness suggests reduced swelling and a lower risk of airway obstruction, making this the best indicator of effectiveness.

D. "I am feeling more alert." Diphenhydramine commonly causes drowsiness due to its sedative effects. Feeling more alert would be an unusual response to the medication and does not indicate improvement in the allergic reaction. The primary concern is symptom resolution, particularly respiratory symptoms, rather than changes in alertness.


Question 9: View

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a new prescription for nitrofurantoin to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Explanation

A. Tinnitus. Nitrofurantoin is not commonly associated with ototoxicity or tinnitus. Medications such as aminoglycosides and loop diuretics are more likely to cause this adverse effect. While nitrofurantoin can have some neurological side effects, tinnitus is not a primary concern.

B. Abdominal cramping. Gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting can occur with nitrofurantoin, especially if taken on an empty stomach. However, abdominal cramping is usually mild and not a serious adverse effect requiring discontinuation of the medication. Taking the drug with food can help reduce gastrointestinal discomfort.

C. Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a rare but serious hypersensitivity reaction that can occur with nitrofurantoin use. It presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by a painful rash, blistering, and skin peeling. Immediate discontinuation and medical intervention are required if symptoms develop, as SJS can be life-threatening.

D. Insomnia. Nitrofurantoin does not commonly cause insomnia. Some medications, such as corticosteroids and stimulants, are more likely to interfere with sleep. Nitrofurantoin’s side effects primarily affect the gastrointestinal, pulmonary, and dermatologic systems rather than sleep patterns.


Question 10: View

A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who continues to have a migraine headache after taking sumatriptan orally 2 hr ago. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Explanation

A. Tingling sensation. A mild tingling or paresthesia is a common side effect of sumatriptan due to its vasoconstrictive action. While it should be monitored, it is not typically harmful and does not require immediate medical intervention.

B. Hypertension. Sumatriptan works by constricting blood vessels to relieve migraine symptoms, but it can also cause a dangerous increase in blood pressure. Severe hypertension can lead to complications such as stroke or myocardial infarction. This is the priority finding that requires immediate reporting to prevent life-threatening cardiovascular events.

C. Dizziness. Dizziness can occur due to sumatriptan’s vasoconstrictive properties or from the migraine itself. While it can be uncomfortable, it is not an immediate threat to the client’s safety unless it is severe or associated with other neurological symptoms.

D. Flushing. Facial flushing is a known side effect of sumatriptan and is generally harmless. It occurs due to transient vasodilation in the skin and does not indicate a serious adverse reaction. Monitoring is appropriate, but it does not require urgent intervention.


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