HESI RN MED-SURG 3
HESI RN MED-SURG 3
Total Questions : 51
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA client is being prepared for discharge. The client's discharge plan includes resuming the lower dose of lithium and continuing to take desmopressin in oral form. The nurse teaches the client about safety measures.
Click to indicate which client statements indicate teaching was effective related to management of diabetes insipidus and care. Each row must have only one option selected.
Explanation
- I will monitor my urine output and pay attention to the volume and color. Clients with DI must monitor urine output closely because polyuria and diluted urine indicate under-treatment, while sudden reduced output and darker urine may suggest fluid retention or excessive desmopressin dosing.
- I will always wear my medical alert bracelet. A medical alert bracelet is essential for emergency situations since DI can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances if left untreated. It ensures that emergency responders are aware of the condition if the client is unable to communicate.
- I will use the same scale and wear a similar amount of clothing when I take my weekly weight. Monitoring body weight trends is crucial in DI management, as sudden weight gain may indicate fluid retention (over-treatment), while weight loss may suggest dehydration. Using a consistent method ensures accurate tracking.
- If I gain more than 2.2 lb (1 kg), I will go to the emergency department (ED). A sudden weight gain may suggest fluid retention from over-treatment, but mild fluctuations are not always an emergency. Instead, the client should report significant weight changes to their healthcare provider to assess medication adjustments.
- If I become thirstier, I may need another dose of the medication. While increased thirst may indicate under-treatment, self-adjusting the desmopressin dose is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider. The client should track symptoms and report persistent thirst to determine if a dosage change is necessary.
A client diagnosed with pancreatitis reports severe epigastric pain. After administering a narcotic analgesic, the client insists on Tip sitting up and leaning forward. Which action should the nurse implement?
Explanation
A. Provide a bedside table for the client to lean across. Clients with acute pancreatitis often experience severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back. Leaning forward helps reduce pressure on the inflamed pancreas and relieves pain by minimizing peritoneal irritation. Providing a bedside table allows the client to rest in a comfortable, supported position, improving pain management without additional interventions.
B. Place bed in the reverse Trendelenburg position. Reverse Trendelenburg elevates the head and lowers the feet, which does not specifically relieve pain associated with pancreatitis. The client instinctively leans forward for relief, and adjusting the bed position would not provide the same benefit. This intervention does not directly address the underlying cause of discomfort.
C. Encourage bed rest until analgesic takes effect. Although pain control is essential, keeping the client in a supine or bedrest position can increase abdominal pressure and worsen discomfort. Allowing the client to assume a comfortable position enhances the effectiveness of analgesics and prevents unnecessary distress. Pain relief strategies should focus on both pharmacologic and positioning interventions.
D. Raise the head of the bed to a 90-degree angle. Elevating the head of the bed can improve breathing and reduce reflux, but it does not provide the same pressure relief as leaning forward. Sitting upright without forward support does not effectively relieve peritoneal irritation from pancreatic inflammation. Providing a bedside table supports proper positioning and enhances comfort.
After an endotracheal tube (ETT) is initially placed for a client requiring mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Explanation
A. Obtain a chest x-ray to verify endotracheal tube location. A chest x-ray is the gold standard for confirming ETT placement, but it is not the first step. Immediate bedside assessment is needed to ensure the tube is correctly positioned before relying on imaging. If the tube is misplaced in the esophagus, waiting for an x-ray could delay necessary corrections.
B. Call the respiratory therapist (RT) to verify tube placement. The nurse should first perform a rapid bedside assessment before consulting the RT. While RTs assist in confirming placement, the nurse is responsible for the initial verification of breath sounds, chest rise, and end-tidal CO₂ (ETCO₂) readings. Any concerns should be addressed immediately.
C. Instill normal saline into the endotracheal tube for suctioning. Instilling saline before suctioning is not recommended, as it can promote aspiration, decrease oxygenation, and increase infection risk. The priority is confirming that the tube is properly placed before performing any interventions such as suctioning.
D. Auscultate for breath sounds bilaterally in all lung fields. The first action after ETT placement is to auscultate bilateral breath sounds to confirm proper tube positioning. If the tube is misplaced in the esophagus, breath sounds will be absent or diminished bilaterally. If placed too deep, breath sounds may be absent on one side, indicating mainstem bronchus intubation. This immediate assessment helps identify misplacement before obtaining a chest x-ray.
The nurse assesses the telemetry monitor of a client who is 24 hours postoperative from having a permanent pacemaker insertion. The nurse observes that a pacemaker spike is present before each QRS complex in lead II of the electrocardiogram (ECG). Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Explanation
A. Document that the client is experiencing a paced rhythm. A pacemaker spike before each QRS complex indicates that the pacemaker is functioning properly and triggering ventricular depolarization as intended. Since the client is 24 hours postoperative from a pacemaker insertion, this is an expected finding and should be documented accordingly.
B. Reposition the ECG leads and obtain another recording. If the ECG showed artifact, lead displacement, or interference, repositioning the leads might be appropriate. However, the presence of consistent pacemaker spikes before each QRS complex suggests proper pacemaker function rather than a lead issue.
C. Assess the client for symptoms of decreased cardiac output. A paced rhythm is expected after pacemaker insertion and does not necessarily indicate hemodynamic instability. While assessment is always important, there is no indication that the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output symptoms such as hypotension, dizziness, or altered mental status.
D. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the telemetry recording. Routine paced rhythms do not require immediate provider notification unless there are malfunctions such as failure to capture, failure to sense, or failure to pace. Since the pacemaker is functioning appropriately, notifying the HCP is unnecessary.
After intubating a client, correct placement of the endotracheal tube (ETT) is confirmed with a chest x-ray. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure that the ETT placement is maintained?
Explanation
A. Oxygenate before suctioning. Pre-oxygenation before suctioning is essential to prevent hypoxia and bradycardia, but it does not directly ensure that the ETT remains in the correct position. This is a general airway management guideline rather than a specific intervention to maintain ETT placement.
B. Auscultate bilateral breath sounds. Auscultation is important for ongoing assessment of lung sounds and oxygenation but does not physically prevent tube displacement. While listening for equal breath sounds helps detect tube migration or mainstem bronchus intubation, it does not secure the ETT in place.
C. Firmly secure the ETT in place. After proper ETT placement is confirmed with a chest x-ray, securing the tube with adhesive tape or a commercial ETT holder prevents displacement. Unintentional extubation or tube migration can lead to hypoxia, respiratory distress, or esophageal intubation, making proper tube fixation a priority intervention.
D. Suction the ETT every 2 hours. Routine suctioning is not recommended unless there are indications such as visible secretions, high airway pressures, or decreased oxygenation. Frequent, unnecessary suctioning can cause mucosal trauma, hypoxia, and bradycardia and does not help maintain ETT placement.
Based on the client's laboratory values at 1600, which are appropriate nursing actions? Select all that apply.
Explanation
A. Give the client 15 g of carbohydrates and retest the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
A blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is still high but does not require immediate carbohydrate administration. Carbohydrates are given in cases of hypoglycemia (blood glucose <70 mg/dL) or when transitioning from IV to subcutaneous insulin at lower glucose levels.
B. Bolus the client with 1 L of 3% sodium chloride solution.
The client’s sodium is already elevated (152 mEq/L), and hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) would worsen hypernatremia and increase the risk of neurological complications. Instead, hypotonic fluids (0.45% NaCl) are recommended once intravascular volume is stabilized.
C. Hold the insulin infusion.
HHS is managed with continuous insulin infusion to gradually reduce glucose levels. The blood glucose is still above the target range (250 mg/dL), so insulin should not be stopped prematurely to avoid a rebound in hyperglycemia.
D. Decrease the sodium concentration in the IV fluids from 0.9% to 0.45%.
Once circulatory volume is restored, fluids should be switched to 0.45% sodium chloride to correct hypernatremia and intracellular dehydration. This is a standard part of HHS treatment after initial fluid resuscitation.
E. Alert the provider of the current blood glucose level.
Glucose levels are improving but still high (250 mg/dL), requiring adjustments in fluid and insulin therapy. The provider should be informed to assess whether insulin titration or fluid changes are necessary.
F. Add 20 mEq of potassium chloride to the IV fluids.
Insulin therapy drives potassium into cells, leading to hypokalemia (K⁺ = 3.2 mEq/L), which can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Potassium replacement is required to prevent complications and maintain normal levels.
G. Start a regular diet.
Clients with HHS require gradual rehydration and glucose control before transitioning to oral intake. A regular diet is not appropriate until the client is stable, glucose levels are consistently controlled, and IV therapy is discontinued.
A client has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system with suction. Which equipment should the nurse always have available at the client's bedside?
Explanation
A. Suture removal kit. A suture removal kit is used when the chest tube is ready for removal, but it is not necessary to keep at the bedside during routine chest tube management. The priority is ensuring emergency supplies are available if the tube becomes dislodged.
B. Suction catheter. A suction catheter is used to remove secretions from the airway but is not essential for managing a chest tube. Chest drainage systems function independently to remove air or fluid, and routine suctioning is not required for chest tube management.
C. Sterile gauze dressing. If the chest tube accidentally dislodges, an occlusive dressing (such as sterile gauze with petroleum jelly) should be applied immediately to prevent air from re-entering the pleural space, which could lead to a tension pneumothorax. Keeping sterile gauze at the bedside ensures rapid intervention in case of accidental chest tube removal.
D. Sterile piston syringe. A sterile piston syringe is used for irrigating wounds or suctioning secretions, but it is not necessary for chest tube management. The closed drainage system should never be manually flushed unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider.
A client is admitted to the neurological intensive care unit after having just sustained a C5 spinal cord injury (SCI). Which assessment finding for this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Explanation
A. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute. A C5 spinal cord injury can impair diaphragmatic function and respiratory effort, leading to respiratory failure. Shallow and labored breathing suggests that the client is experiencing respiratory compromise, which can quickly progress to hypoventilation, hypoxia, and respiratory arrest. Immediate intervention, such as assisted ventilation or intubation, may be necessary to maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications.
B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities. Flaccid paralysis is an expected finding immediately after a high spinal cord injury due to spinal shock. While this condition requires ongoing monitoring, it is not an immediate life-threatening emergency like respiratory distress.
C. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and the apical heart rate is 68 beats/minute. These vital signs are within normal limits and do not indicate hemodynamic instability. Neurogenic shock, which can occur with high spinal injuries, typically presents with hypotension and bradycardia, but this client’s current BP and HR are stable.
D. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands. Loss of sensation is expected with a cervical spinal cord injury due to nerve pathway disruption. While this finding is significant, it does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress, which is the most urgent priority.
The nurse is monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a client who attempted suicide by jumping from a tenth floor balcony. The client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which intervention should the nurse implement to minimize rises in ICP?
Explanation
A. Elevate the head of the bed and provide a pillow under the client's head. While elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help reduce ICP by promoting venous drainage, placing a pillow under the head may cause neck flexion, which can obstruct venous outflow and worsen intracranial pressure. Instead, the head should be maintained in a neutral midline position without excessive flexion or extension.
B. Suction the endotracheal tube every 15 minutes to reduce choking. Frequent suctioning can increase ICP due to coughing and vagal stimulation. Suctioning should be performed only as needed and using minimized suction duration to prevent sudden rises in intracranial pressure.
C. Intersperse treatments and nursing care with frequent rest periods. Clustering too many nursing interventions together can overstimulate the client and cause spikes in ICP. Providing adequate rest periods between activities such as repositioning, suctioning, and assessments allows intracranial pressure to return to baseline levels, helping to prevent sustained increases.
D. Change positions frequently while providing basic nursing care. Frequent repositioning can cause sudden fluctuations in ICP, especially if movements are abrupt or cause venous obstruction. Turning the client slowly and maintaining the head in a neutral position is recommended to avoid exacerbating intracranial hypertension.
The nurse assesses a client postoperatively who has an arterial line in the right radial artery. Assessment findings include pallor, paresthesia, and slow capillary refill in the client's right-hand fingers. Which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Perform the Allen test. The Allen test is performed before inserting a radial arterial line to assess ulnar artery patency and ensure adequate collateral circulation. Since the arterial line is already placed and the client is showing signs of compromised circulation (pallor, paresthesia, and slow capillary refill), immediate intervention is required rather than further pre-insertion testing.
B. Elevate the client's right arm. Elevating the arm does not directly resolve arterial compromise and may further reduce perfusion by impairing arterial blood flow. The priority is to assess and address potential ischemia caused by arterial line complications.
C. Flush the line with heparinized saline. Flushing an arterial line is appropriate for maintaining patency, but in this case, it may worsen ischemia if the catheter is causing an obstruction or arterial spasm. Additionally, flushing should never be done forcefully due to the risk of embolization.
D. Notify the healthcare provider. The pallor, paresthesia, and delayed capillary refill suggest arterial insufficiency, possible thrombosis, or arterial spasm, which can lead to tissue ischemia and necrosis if not addressed promptly. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately to assess the need for interventions such as removal of the arterial line, vascular assessment, or anticoagulation therapy.
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