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Ati PN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Proctored Exam

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Total Questions : 178

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Question 1:

A nurse is giving a report to their supervisor. Which of the following indicates a need for client care to be transferred to a registered nurse?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 2:

Client is manifesting chills, sweating, and wheezing. Reports muscle aches and coughing up deep yellow sputum. Client reports allergies to nuts and penicillin.

Temperature 39.3° C (102.8° F)

Pulse 102/min

Respirations 26/min

Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg

WBC 16.000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

Chest x-ray left lower lobe density

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has pneumonia and a prescription for cefazolin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider prior to administering the initial dose? (Click on the exhibit tabs for additional information about the client. There are three tabs that contain separate categories of data.)

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 3:

Day 1:

Alert and oriented x3

Bilateral breath sounds clear and present throughout

Extremities warm, bilateral pedal pulses 2+

Weight 60 kg (132 lb)

Urine output 520 mL/8 hr

Day 7:

Alert and oriented x3

Breath sounds with scattered crackles heard bilaterally

Extremities cool, bilateral pedal pulses 1+

Weight 61.24 kg (135 lb)

Urine output 160 mL/8 hr

Day 1:

Temperature 37.6° C (99.7" F)

BP 108/50 mm Hg

Pulse rate 98/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

Day 7:

Temperature 36.8° C (98,2° F)

BP 148/80 mm Hg

Pulse rate 116/min

Respiratory rate 28/min

Oxygen saturation 92% on 4 L of oxygen via nasal cannula

Day 7:

Chest x-ray: cardiomegaly

Day 7:

Potassium 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client.

A nurse is reviewing the client's electronic medical record. Which of the following findings on day 7 require further action? Select all that apply.

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 4:

0800:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Hypertension

0800:

Client reports recent fatigue and lightheadedness when standing

Client states, "I have trouble when i take my blood pressure medication, I feel dizzy all the time. My blood sugars get a little off when I skip a meal because I am not hungry."

0800:

Temperature 37.2° C (98.96° F)

Heart rate 62/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Blood pressure 136/68 mm Hg (supine)

Blood pressure 114/64 mm Hg (standing, after 3 min)

0800:

Potassium chloride 40 mEq PO daily

Metoprolol 20 mg PO daily

Metformin 500 mg PO twice daily

0800:

Nonfasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)

HbA1c 8.2% (good diabetic control less than 7%)

Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)

Potassium 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client in the clinic.

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The client is at greatest risk for developing 

due to use of.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

The client reports dizziness, lightheadedness, and problems when skipping meals, which suggests concern for blood glucose instability and cardiovascular effects of prescribed medications. Beta-blockers such as metoprolol can mask the adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia, making low blood sugar more dangerous for diabetic clients. Recognizing medication interactions and adverse effects is essential for preventing complications and promoting safe chronic disease management.

Rationale for correct choices:

• Hypoglycemia: Clients with diabetes are at risk for hypoglycemia, especially when meals are skipped or appetite is poor. Even though metformin itself rarely causes hypoglycemia, missed meals combined with glucose-lowering therapy can increase risk. In addition, beta-blockers can prevent recognition of early warning signs such as tachycardia and tremors. This makes hypoglycemia the most significant potential complication requiring attention.

• Metoprolol: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can mask common adrenergic symptoms of hypoglycemia such as palpitations, tremors, and tachycardia. As a result, the client may not recognize blood glucose drops until symptoms become severe, such as confusion or syncope. Since this client already reports skipping meals, the risk becomes more significant.

Rationale for incorrect choices:

• Bradycardia: Although metoprolol can cause bradycardia, the client’s current heart rate is 62/min, which is within normal range and not immediately concerning. The greater risk is unrecognized hypoglycemia because the client reports skipped meals and dizziness. Bradycardia is possible, but it is less urgent and less supported by the findings than hypoglycemia.

• Paresthesia: Paresthesia is more commonly associated with diabetic neuropathy or significant electrolyte disturbances rather than the medications listed here. The potassium level is normal at 3.5 mEq/L, and potassium chloride is being given to maintain balance, not causing neurologic symptoms. Metformin may contribute to vitamin B12 deficiency over long-term use, but that is not the primary risk highlighted in this scenario.

• Metformin: Metformin primarily lowers hepatic glucose production and generally does not cause hypoglycemia when used alone. It is safer in this regard compared to insulin or sulfonylureas. Skipped meals may still contribute to low glucose symptoms, but metformin itself is not the major cause of masked or severe hypoglycemia.

• Potassium: Potassium chloride is prescribed to prevent or correct hypokalemia and does not directly cause hypoglycemia. The client’s potassium level is at the lower end of normal, making supplementation appropriate. Abnormal potassium levels can affect cardiac conduction and muscle function, they do not explain the client’s concern about skipped meals and blood sugar changes.


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Question 5:

1400:

Client returns to medical surgical unit from the PACU following an abdominal hysterectomy, Client resting quietly. Denies pain.

Physical Exam:

General: resting quietly, no acute distress

Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat (HEENTE oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation.

Cardiovascular: S1, S2. no murmur, gallop, or rub, bradycardia

Respiratory: bilateral breath sounds clear

Neurologic: drowsy, oriented x3

1600:

The nurse is called to the client's room. The client states, "I'm hurting really badly; can you give me something for pain?" Client reports pain as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10.

1630:

The nurse returns to client's room to reevaluate pain.

Physical Exam:

General: resting quietly, slow to arouse

Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, Throat (HEENT): oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist, pinpoint pupils

Cardiovascular: S1, S2, no murmur, gallop, or rub, bradycardia

Respiratory: decreased respiratory effort, equal chest expansion, bilateral crackles

Neurologic: somnolent

1600:

Morphine 8 mg IV now

1400:

  • Temperature 36.9° C (98.4° F)
  • Heart rate 59/min
  • Respiratory rate 16/min
  • Blood pressure 118/79 mm Hg

1630:

  • Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)
  • Heart rate 58/min
  • Respiratory rate 10/min
  • Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg

A nurse is caring for a client on the medical surgical unit.

Click to highlight the findings at 1630 that require immediate follow-up. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.

Body System

Findings

Cardiovascular

S1,S2, no murmur, bradycardia

Respiratory

decreased respiratory effort, equal chest expansion, bilateral crackles

Neurologic

somnolent

Head, Ears, Eyes, Nose, and Throat(HEENT)

oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist, pinpoint pupils

Vital Signs

Temperature 37.4°C (99.4°F)

Heart rate 58/min

Respiratory rate 10min

Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Recognizing opioid-induced respiratory depression after administration of IV morphine in a postoperative client is important. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased respiratory drive, sedation, hypotension, and pinpoint pupils. The client’s worsening drowsiness, slow respirations, and decreased responsiveness shortly after receiving morphine strongly suggest opioid toxicity. Immediate identification is critical because untreated respiratory depression can rapidly progress to hypoxia, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

Rationale for correct findings:

• Respiratory; decreased respiratory effort, equal chest expansion, bilateral crackles: Decreased respiratory effort is the most urgent sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Opioids suppress the respiratory center in the brainstem, causing slow and shallow breathing that reduces oxygen exchange. Bilateral crackles may also suggest retained secretions or fluid accumulation due to poor ventilation. Respiratory compromise is the highest priority.

• Neurologic; somnolent: Somnolence indicates excessive CNS depression and reduced responsiveness, which commonly occurs with opioid overdose or excessive opioid effect. A client who is slow to arouse may rapidly progress to unresponsiveness if respiratory depression worsens. Increasing sedation after morphine administration is a major warning sign. This requires urgent reassessment and likely reversal intervention.

• HEENT; pinpoint pupils: Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic sign of opioid toxicity and strongly support the suspicion of morphine overdose or excessive opioid response. When seen with respiratory depression and somnolence, this finding is especially concerning. It helps confirm that the symptoms are medication-related rather than another postoperative complication. Immediate intervention is needed.

• Vital Signs; Respiratory rate 10/min: A respiratory rate of 10/min is below normal and indicates significant respiratory depression. Opioid administration can suppress respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and poor oxygenation. This is one of the earliest and most dangerous indicators of opioid toxicity. Prompt action such as naloxone administration may be required.

• Vital Signs; Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg: Morphine can cause vasodilation and hypotension, especially when combined with sedation and decreased respiratory effort. A drop in blood pressure from baseline suggests worsening hemodynamic status and possible poor tissue perfusion. In combination with bradycardia and CNS depression, this increases concern for opioid excess.

Rationale for incorrect findings:

• Cardiovascular; S1, S2, no murmur: The normal heart sounds without murmur indicate no acute structural cardiac issue. In this situation, respiratory compromise takes priority over mild bradycardia. Therefore, this finding is monitored but not the most immediate concern.

• Vital Signs: Temperature 37.4°C (99.4°F): This temperature is within normal postoperative range and does not indicate fever or infection. There is no evidence of sepsis or acute inflammatory complications. Compared with respiratory depression and decreased consciousness, temperature is not an urgent concern.


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Question 6:

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and a prescription for a 2-gram sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the lowest amount of sodium?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 7:

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for oxycodone. Which of the following medications should the nurse remind the client to take regularly to prevent a common adverse effect of oxycodone?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 8:

0900:

Client presents to the clinic at 10 weeks of gestation. Client reports abdominal cramping and moderate, bright red vaginal bleeding. Cervix is open upon vaginal exam by provider. Client has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and recurrent chlamydia infections.

1000:

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level 30 IU/L (Positive if greater than 25 IU/L)

Hgb 12 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL)

Hct 35% (33% to 47%)

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client at the clinic.

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

The client is at risk for

due to.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

This case focuses on identifying risk factors for pregnancy complications in a client presenting at 10 weeks of gestation with abdominal cramping, moderate bright red vaginal bleeding, and an open cervix. These findings strongly suggest an inevitable or ongoing miscarriage. Early pregnancy bleeding accompanied by cervical dilation indicates that pregnancy loss is actively occurring or cannot be prevented. Understanding the relationship between clinical signs and obstetric emergencies is essential for timely intervention and maternal stabilization.

Rationale for correct choices:

• Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) is characterized by vaginal bleeding, abdominal cramping, and changes in cervical status during early pregnancy. The presence of bright red bleeding and cramping at 10 weeks gestation strongly indicates pregnancy loss. An open cervix confirms that the pregnancy cannot be maintained, making miscarriage highly likely. These findings align with an inevitable or incomplete abortion.

• Cervical dilation is a key clinical indicator of spontaneous abortion in progress. Once the cervix opens in early pregnancy with bleeding and cramping, the pregnancy is no longer viable. This mechanical change indicates that uterine contents are being expelled or will be expelled. It is a direct physiologic marker of miscarriage risk.

Rationale for incorrect choices:

• A molar pregnancy is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation leading to markedly elevated hCG levels, often far above normal for gestational age. Clients typically present with excessive uterine enlargement, severe nausea/vomiting, and sometimes passage of “grape-like” vesicles rather than moderate bleeding with cervical dilation.

• An ectopic pregnancy occurs when implantation happens outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. Typical findings include unilateral abdominal pain, scant vaginal bleeding, and often absent or low hCG rise inconsistent with gestational age. Cervical dilation is not expected because the pregnancy is not located within the uterine cavity.

• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is used to assess pregnancy viability and progression. At 10 weeks of gestation, an hCG level of 30 IU/L is extremely low. Typically, hCG levels peak around 8 to 11 weeks of gestation, often reaching between 20,000 and 200,000 IU/L. This low value indicates that the pregnancy is likely not viable.

• A history of chlamydia infection is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy due to possible tubal scarring. However, this client’s presentation includes cervical dilation and uterine bleeding, which are not consistent with ectopic pregnancy. While infection history is relevant to reproductive health, it does not directly explain the current acute presentation.


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Question 9:

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client following a gastrectomy. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to consume to prevent dumping syndrome?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 10:

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

Answer and Explanation

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