Adult Health III (ASN) Section 02- Final Proctored Exam - Albany State University
Adult Health III (ASN) Section 02- Final Proctored Exam - Albany State University
Total Questions : 98
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreAmpicillin 500 mg IM daily is ordered for your patient.
After reconstitution with 5 ml of sterile water, the vial of Ampicillin contains a total of 500 mg/ml. How many milliliters will your patient receive per day?
Explanation
1 Step 1 is (500 mg ÷ 500 mg/ml) × 1 ml.
Answer is 1 ml.
A nurse is admitting a client who has hepatitis
Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Droplet precautions are utilized for pathogens transmitted by large respiratory droplets that travel short distances, typically 3 to 6 feet, through coughing or sneezing. Hepatitis C virus is not transmitted via the respiratory route, but rather through direct percutaneous or mucosal exposure to infected blood. Therefore, using droplet barriers like surgical masks is clinically inappropriate and unnecessary for managing a patient with this specific viral bloodborne infection.
Choice B rationale
Airborne precautions are required for small droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or varicella. Hepatitis C is a bloodborne pathogen and does not aerosolize through normal respiratory processes. Implementing negative pressure rooms or N95 respirators for a hepatitis C patient represents a misunderstanding of the virus's transmission dynamics, which strictly require blood-to-blood contact for infection to occur between the host and a new susceptible individual.
Choice C rationale
Contact precautions are indicated for pathogens spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment, such as C. difficile or MRSA. While hepatitis C is infectious, it is not spread through casual skin contact or touching environmental surfaces unless significant blood contamination is present. Standard nursing practice for hepatitis C focuses on blood and body fluid barriers rather than the universal gowning and gloving required for contact-isolated organisms.
Choice D rationale
Standard precautions are the primary strategy for preventing healthcare-associated transmission of infectious agents among patients and personnel. Because hepatitis C is transmitted via blood and certain body fluids, the use of gloves, gowns, and face protection is based on the anticipated level of exposure during specific tasks. This approach is sufficient and scientifically sound for hepatitis C, as it prevents percutaneous and mucosal exposure to the virus during routine clinical care.
Cefazolin sodium 250 mg IV every 8 hours is ordered for your patient.
You are to reconstitute with 2.5 ml sterile normal saline.
After reconstitution the vial contains 225 mg/ml. How many ml will you administer per dose?
Explanation
3 Step 1 is (250 mg ÷ 225 mg/ml) × 1 ml.
Step 2 is 1.111 ml.
Step 3 is 1.1 ml.
The physician orders Synthroid 100 mcg po daily for a patient with hypothyroidism.
The medication is supplied in 0.1-mg tablets.
How many tablets will the nurse administer?
Explanation
4 Step 1 is (0.1 mg × 1000) to convert to mcg.
Step 2 is 100 mcg.
Step 3 is (100 mcg ÷ 100 mcg) × 1 tablet.
Step 4 is 1 tablet.
The physician orders erythromycin 1 g in 100 mL of D5W to infuse in 30 minutes.
Calculate the flow rate in milliliters per hour using an IV pump.
Explanation
Answer and explanation
5 Step 1 is (100 ml ÷ 30 min) × 60 min.
Step 2 is 200 ml.
One of the early signs of the effect of hypoxemia on the nervous system is:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes resulting from an increased amount of deoxygenated hemoglobin, typically when it exceeds 5 g/dL. While it is a sign of severe hypoxemia, it is considered a late clinical manifestation rather than an early one. Many patients may be significantly hypoxic before cyanosis ever becomes visible, making it an unreliable indicator for early nervous system or systemic oxygen deprivation.
Choice B rationale
Tachypnea, or an increased respiratory rate, is a compensatory physiological response to hypoxemia mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies. While it occurs early in the progression of respiratory distress, it is a manifestation of the respiratory system's attempt to improve gas exchange and acid-base balance. It does not directly represent the primary, initial impact of falling oxygen levels on the central nervous system's cognitive or behavioral functions.
Choice C rationale
Restlessness is a hallmark early sign of cerebral hypoxia. The brain is highly sensitive to oxygen fluctuations, and a decrease in arterial oxygen tension (PaO2 < 80 mmHg) quickly alters neurotransmitter function and neuronal metabolism. This often manifests as agitation, anxiety, or restlessness before more profound physiological changes like bradycardia or cyanosis occur. Monitoring for these subtle behavioral shifts is critical for the early detection of deteriorating oxygenation status in acute clinical settings.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia is an early cardiovascular compensatory mechanism where the heart rate increases to boost cardiac output and delivery of available oxygen to tissues. While it often occurs simultaneously with early nervous system changes, it is a circulatory response rather than a direct nervous system sign. A normal adult heart rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute, and elevation above this range during hypoxemia is driven by sympathetic nervous system activation.
A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the patient's cognition and behavior.
What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Restricting sodium intake to less than 2000 mg per day is a standard intervention for managing ascites and fluid volume overload in patients with cirrhosis. However, sodium restriction does not directly address or treat the cognitive and behavioral changes associated with worsening liver function. While important for overall fluid management, this action is secondary to the urgent need to evaluate the patient for neurotoxic accumulations affecting brain function and mental status.
Choice B rationale
Providing a calm and therapeutic environment is a supportive nursing intervention that can help reduce patient agitation. However, in the context of cirrhosis, behavioral changes are likely physiological rather than purely environmental. Failing to report these changes to a provider in favor of only modifying the environment ignores the underlying medical emergency of rising ammonia levels. Scientific management must prioritize the physiological cause of the altered mentation over simple environmental modifications.
Choice C rationale
Alcoholic hepatitis is an acute inflammatory condition of the liver caused by heavy alcohol consumption, often presenting with jaundice, fever, and liver tenderness. While this patient has a history of alcohol use, the specific new onset of cognitive and behavioral changes is more characteristic of hepatic encephalopathy than a new flare of hepatitis. Reporting for a hepatitis assessment is less precise and less urgent than reporting for a life-threatening neuropsychiatric complication.
Choice D rationale
Hepatic encephalopathy is a reversible neuropsychiatric syndrome caused by liver failure and the accumulation of neurotoxins, primarily ammonia, in the blood. Ammonia levels normally range from 15 to 45 units/dL, but in cirrhosis, the liver cannot convert it to urea. This leads to cerebral edema and altered neurotransmission, manifesting as subtle confusion or irritability. Reporting these signs immediately is essential so that treatments like lactulose can be initiated to lower toxic levels.
Victim of a disaster, a client is prescribed ciprofloxacin.
The nurse knows this medication is part of the treatment regimen for bioterrorism disaster involving which of the following?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sarin gas is an extremely potent organophosphate nerve agent that inhibits acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction and within the central nervous system. This inhibition leads to a cholinergic crisis characterized by excessive bronchial secretions, bradycardia, and muscle paralysis. Treatment requires atropine to block muscarinic receptors and pralidoxime to reactivate the enzyme. Ciprofloxacin, being a fluoroquinolone antibiotic targeting bacterial DNA gyrase, has no biochemical mechanism to counteract nerve gas toxicity or its physiological effects.
Choice B rationale
Ebola virus causes a severe hemorrhagic fever by inducing widespread endothelial damage and a massive cytokine storm. As a viral pathogen, it replicates using host cell machinery which is unaffected by the mechanism of ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin specifically targets the A subunit of bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, enzymes absent in viruses. While secondary bacterial infections may occur in Ebola patients, ciprofloxacin is not part of the primary treatment regimen for the viral disaster itself.
Choice C rationale
Anthrax is caused by the Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Ciprofloxacin is the gold standard for post-exposure prophylaxis and treatment because it inhibits the bacterial enzymes necessary for DNA replication and transcription. In a bioterrorism event involving aerosolized spores, rapid administration of fluoroquinolones prevents the bacteria from multiplying and releasing lethal toxins. It is highly effective against most strains, making it a critical component of the Strategic National Stockpile for such specific bacterial threats.
Choice D rationale
Smallpox is caused by the variola virus, a large DNA orthopoxvirus. Historically, it was eradicated through vaccination, but it remains a bioterrorism concern. Being a viral entity, variola does not possess the DNA gyrase targets that ciprofloxacin acts upon. Treatment for smallpox focuses on antiviral medications like tecovirimat, which interferes with the viral envelope protein. Ciprofloxacin provides no clinical benefit against the variola virus and is not indicated for smallpox prophylaxis in disaster management protocols.
A patient who suffered a spinal cord injury is experiencing an exaggerated autonomic response.
What aspect of the patient's current health status is most likely to have precipitated this event?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Analgesia changes might influence a patient's comfort or lead to withdrawal symptoms, but they are not the primary drivers of autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia is a clinical emergency occurring in spinal cord injuries at or above the T6 level. While pain can be a stimulus, the exaggerated sympathetic discharge is usually triggered by visceral distention rather than a simple change in medication regimen. The physiological mechanism involves a massive sympathetic reflex below the injury level.
Choice B rationale
Failure to reposition a patient can lead to the development of pressure ulcers, which are potential triggers for autonomic dysreflexia. However, the lack of repositioning during a single shift is less likely to cause an immediate, acute exaggerated autonomic response compared to acute visceral distention. Pressure sores act as a chronic noxious stimulus. While important for long-term skin integrity, this factor typically has a lower immediate precipitating frequency than acute bladder or bowel issues in these patients.
Choice C rationale
Blood transfusions carry risks such as hemolytic reactions or circulatory overload, but they do not typically trigger the specific reflex arc associated with autonomic dysreflexia. Autonomic dysreflexia requires a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord lesion, usually involving the pelvic viscera. A transfusion reaction would present with systemic symptoms like fever or chills, which differ significantly from the sudden hypertension and bradycardia seen in the exaggerated autonomic response of spinal cord patients.
Choice D rationale
A clogged urinary catheter is the most common precipitant of autonomic dysreflexia. Bladder distention sends afferent signals to the spinal cord, triggering a massive, uncompensated sympathetic nervous system response below the level of the injury. This causes severe vasoconstriction and hypertension. Because the spinal cord injury blocks inhibitory signals from the brain, the body cannot downregulate this response. Normal bladder pressures are usually low, but occlusion causes rapid distention, making it a primary medical emergency.
Organ perfusion depends on mean arterial pressure.
All are true regarding mean arterial pressure except:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, calculated as heart rate multiplied by stroke volume. According to the physiological relationship where MAP is approximately equal to cardiac output multiplied by systemic vascular resistance, any increase in the volume of blood ejected into the arterial system will directly elevate the mean arterial pressure. This is a fundamental principle of hemodynamics where flow and pressure are positively correlated in a closed circuit.
Choice B rationale
Vascular bed diameter is inversely related to systemic vascular resistance and mean arterial pressure. When the diameter of blood vessels increases, a process known as vasodilation, the resistance to blood flow decreases significantly. According to Poiseuille's law, resistance is inversely proportional to the radius to the fourth power. Therefore, as the diameter increases, the pressure required to move blood through the vessels drops, leading to a decrease in MAP rather than an increase.
Choice C rationale
Mean arterial pressure is determined by the complex interplay of blood volume, the effectiveness of the cardiac pump, and the tone of the vascular system. Blood volume dictates the fill pressure of the system, cardiac output determines the flow rate, and vascular tone creates the resistance against which the heart must pump. These three variables are the primary physiological determinants used in clinical practice to assess and manage a patient's circulatory status and organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Blood volume is a critical component of the mean systemic filling pressure. An increase in total circulating blood volume leads to higher venous return and increased stroke volume through the Frank-Starling mechanism. This additional volume exerts greater tension on the arterial walls, which increases the mean arterial pressure. This is why intravenous fluid boluses are used as a first-line treatment to raise MAP in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock or low perfusion states.
You just viewed 10 questions out of the 98 questions on the Adult Health III (ASN) Section 02- Final Proctored Exam - Albany State University Exam. Subscribe to our Premium Package to obtain access on all the questions and have unlimited access on all Exams. Subscribe Now
