Ati rn pediatric nursing 2023 proctored exam
Ati rn pediatric nursing 2023 proctored exam
Total Questions : 66
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for a school-age child who has heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Explanation
A. Ensure that the child sleeps in an air-conditioned room: While a cool and comfortable environment may reduce stress and promote rest, air conditioning alone does not address the management of heart failure. It is supportive but not a priority nursing intervention.
B. Avoid giving the child live virus vaccines: Live virus vaccines are typically avoided in immunocompromised clients or those on immunosuppressive therapy, not specifically for stable pediatric heart failure.
C. Weigh the child every other day: Children with heart failure are at risk for fluid retention, and daily weights provide the accurate and timely assessment of fluid status. Weighing every other day could delay the identification of fluid overload and compromise early intervention.
D. Consolidate activities to promote the child's rest: Children with heart failure often experience fatigue due to decreased cardiac output. Organizing care to allow longer rest periods helps reduce cardiac workload and conserves energy.
A nurse is transporting a 12-year-old child in a wheelchair. The child begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Apply soft restraints to the child's wrists: Restraining a child during a seizure can increase the risk of injury, such as fractures or soft tissue damage, due to the forceful muscle contractions. Seizure management focuses on safety and airway support, not restriction.
B. Insert an oral airway for the child: Forcing an oral airway during an active seizure is dangerous, as it can damage teeth, oral tissues, or obstruct the airway. Airway devices should only be considered after the seizure subsides and the child is no longer clenching the jaw.
C. Move the child to the floor: Lowering the child to the floor prevents falls from the wheelchair and reduces the risk of traumatic injury. It allows the nurse to position the child safely on their side to maintain an open airway once the seizure activity ceases.
D. Place a pillow under the child's knees: Padding the knees does not protect the head or airway, which are the greatest concerns during a seizure. Ensuring safety requires moving the child to the floor and protecting the head, not supporting the knees.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Pelvic inflammatory disease: The client’s fever, pelvic pain, mucopurulent cervical discharge, elevated WBC and CRP, and positive chlamydia test point to pelvic inflammatory disease, a complication of untreated sexually transmitted infection.
• Instruct the adolescent about the use of sitz baths: Sitz baths provide localized warmth and comfort, reducing pelvic and abdominal pain while promoting circulation and relaxation in the pelvic region.
• Administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN pain: Acetaminophen helps relieve pelvic cramping, fever, and discomfort, improving the client’s ability to tolerate care and promoting rest.
• Vaginal bleeding: PID can damage reproductive tissue, increasing risk of abnormal vaginal bleeding, so monitoring helps detect complications such as worsening infection or endometrial involvement.
• Temperature greater than 38.3° C (100.9° F): Persistent fever indicates ongoing infection or ineffective antibiotic therapy, making temperature an essential marker for evaluating treatment response.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Acute appendicitis: This condition presents with right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and elevated inflammatory markers, but mucopurulent cervical discharge and positive chlamydia culture make PID more likely.
• Urinary tract infection: A UTI typically causes dysuria, frequency, and pyuria in urinalysis, but this client’s urine shows no WBCs or nitrites, making this diagnosis unlikely.
• Ectopic pregnancy: The negative hCG rules out pregnancy-related causes such as ectopic pregnancy, despite the abdominal pain.
• Maintain an NPO status: This is appropriate for appendicitis or surgical conditions, not PID, which is treated with antibiotics and comfort measures.
• Administer an enema: This is unrelated to PID management and could worsen discomfort without addressing the infection.
• Place the adolescent on bedrest in semi-Fowler’s position: This is more appropriate for appendicitis or abdominal surgery; PID management focuses on antibiotics, comfort, and symptom control instead.
• Rebound tenderness: While possible in appendicitis, this is not a priority assessment in PID, where infection signs and pelvic pain predominate.
• Presence of a Cullen sign: Cullen’s sign indicates intra-abdominal bleeding, often from ruptured ectopic pregnancy or pancreatitis, not PID.
• Irritation of the phrenic nerve: Phrenic nerve irritation, often causing shoulder tip pain, is associated with a ruptured spleen or ectopic pregnancy, and is not typical of PID.
A nurse is reinforcing the provider's explanation about treatment options to the parents of a 1-month-old who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. "The obstruction will be treated with a medication called indomethacin.": Indomethacin is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus, not to correct coarctation of the aorta. In fact, for coarctation, maintaining ductal patency with prostaglandin E may be necessary until surgery is performed.
B. "The cardiologist will monitor your infant closely until they are able to receive treatment with a heart transplant.": Heart transplant is not the standard treatment for coarctation of the aorta. Most infants undergo surgical or catheter-based interventions, which are effective.
C. "Most cases resolve spontaneously without treatment by 12 months of age.": Coarctation of the aorta does not resolve on its own. Without treatment, it can lead to severe complications such as heart failure, hypertension, or even death, making timely intervention critical.
D. "Surgical repair is the recommended treatment for infants younger than 6 months old.": Surgical repair is the treatment of choice for significant coarctation in infants, especially those younger than 6 months, to relieve obstruction and prevent complications such as left ventricular dysfunction and poor systemic perfusion.
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a child who weighs 18 kg (39.7 lb) and ingested six 500 mg acetaminophen tablets 4 hr ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Prepare to give oral N-acetylcysteine: N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity and is most effective when given within 8 hours of ingestion. Since the child ingested a toxic dose 4 hours ago, administering this medication promptly helps prevent severe hepatic injury.
B. Send the child home on increased fluid intake: Simply encouraging fluids does not address acetaminophen toxicity. Without antidote therapy, the child is at significant risk for liver damage, so discharge with fluids would place the child in danger.
C. Perform gastric lavage with activated charcoal: Activated charcoal may be useful if given within 1 hour of ingestion to reduce absorption. At 4 hours post-ingestion, acetaminophen has already been absorbed, making this intervention ineffective.
D. Begin hemodialysis within the next 24 hr: Hemodialysis is rarely indicated in acetaminophen toxicity unless there is massive ingestion, severe liver failure, or extremely high serum levels. The standard and effective treatment at this stage is N-acetylcysteine.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent in the emergency department (ED).
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specity what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
Explanation
• Crohn's disease: The client’s presentation of hematochezia, abdominal pain, fever, anorexia, elevated CRP, hypoalbuminemia, anemia, and positive stool leukocytes points toward Crohn’s, an inflammatory bowel disease with systemic and intestinal involvement.
• Encourage a high-protein diet: Chronic inflammation and malabsorption in Crohn’s disease contribute to weight loss and muscle wasting, so a high-protein diet supports tissue repair and nutritional repletion.
• Record dietary intake: Careful documentation helps identify food triggers, ensures adequate caloric and protein intake, and provides a baseline for evaluating nutritional support interventions.
• Hemoglobin level: Clients with Crohn’s are prone to gastrointestinal blood loss, putting them at risk for anemia; trending hemoglobin values helps track disease activity and bleeding severity.
• Albumin level: Hypoalbuminemia in Crohn’s reflects both malnutrition and protein-losing enteropathy; monitoring this value provides insight into nutritional status and disease progression.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Appendicitis: Appendicitis usually presents with localized right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and leukocytosis without chronic systemic signs like anemia or hypoalbuminemia, which are more consistent with Crohn’s disease.
• Peptic ulcer disease: Ulcers typically cause epigastric pain and possible melena, but they do not explain systemic inflammation, positive stool leukocytes, or low albumin seen in this case.
• Celiac disease: Celiac often presents with diarrhea, bloating, and steatorrhea, but this client’s hematochezia, fever, and elevated CRP are more consistent with inflammatory bowel disease.
• Administer an enema: This intervention is contraindicated in clients with bowel inflammation due to risk of worsening irritation or triggering perforation.
• Provide a gluten-free diet: While effective in celiac disease, it does not address the inflammation and malabsorption specific to Crohn’s disease.
• Prepare for surgery: Surgery is not the first-line intervention in Crohn’s unless complications like obstruction or perforation occur; conservative management is prioritized initially.
• Abrupt decrease in pain level: This is concerning for ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are not primary features of Crohn’s disease progression.
• Abdominal rigidity: This is a sign of peritonitis, usually from perforation, which is not the presenting concern for this client with Crohn’s disease.
• Presence of steatorrhea: Steatorrhea is more typical of celiac disease or pancreatic insufficiency rather than Crohn’s, which more commonly presents with bloody stools.
A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client who has sickle cell disease.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The nurse should anticipate a provider prescription for
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
• IV hydromorphone: The child is in a vaso-occlusive crisis, where severe pain is the hallmark finding. IV opioids such as hydromorphone are the treatment of choice for rapid pain relief when pain reaches severe levels unrelieved by oral medications.
• Pain: The child reports escalating pain from 7/10 to 10/10 localized in the right knee with swelling and warmth, consistent with vaso-occlusion. Pain control is the immediate priority because inadequate management can worsen stress and sickling.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Fresh frozen plasma transfusion: This is not indicated in sickle cell crisis, as there is no coagulopathy or clotting factor deficiency. Plasma transfusion does not treat anemia or vaso-occlusive pain.
• Factor VIII: This therapy is specific to hemophilia A, which involves a clotting factor deficiency. It has no role in the management of sickle cell disease or vaso-occlusive crisis.
• Platelets: The child’s platelet count is elevated at 450,000/mm³, which reflects a reactive process but not a deficiency. Thrombocytopenia is not present, so platelet replacement is unnecessary.
A nurse is caring for a toddler admitted to the hospital.
Click to highlight the findings that require immediate follow-up. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.
|
Body system |
Findings |
|
Respiratory |
Respiratory rate 26/min |
|
Cardiovascular |
Heart rate 112/min Capillary refill 4 seconds |
|
Gastrointestinal |
Hyperactive bowel sounds |
|
Integumentary |
Diaper area reddened Extremities cool Reports no tears |
|
Neurologic |
Lethargic |
Explanation
Rationale:
• Respiratory rate 26/min: A respiratory rate in the mid-20s is within the normal range for toddlers (20–30/min). The child shows no increased work of breathing, so this does not require immediate intervention.
• Heart rate 112/min: This heart rate falls within the normal toddler range of 90–140 beats per minute. It does not indicate tachycardia or circulatory collapse at this time. Therefore, it is not a priority concern.
• Capillary refill 4 seconds: A refill time greater than 2 seconds indicates impaired circulation and reduced tissue perfusion. This is often seen in dehydration or hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate intervention. Prolonged refill signals worsening cardiovascular compromise.
• Hyperactive bowel sounds: Increased bowel sounds are expected in the setting of diarrhea and rapid peristalsis. While uncomfortable, this finding is not life-threatening and does not require urgent follow-up.
• Diaper area reddened: Redness in the diaper area is most likely due to frequent stools causing skin irritation. While it requires nursing care, it is a localized issue and not an urgent systemic concern.
• Extremities cool: Cool extremities suggest peripheral vasoconstriction as the body tries to preserve blood flow to vital organs. This points to inadequate perfusion from fluid loss. If not addressed quickly, it may progress to shock.
• Reports no tears: Crying without tears is a clear sign of moderate to severe dehydration in children. It indicates the body no longer has adequate fluid reserves to maintain normal secretions. This finding requires prompt replacement of fluids.
• Lethargic: Lethargy signals a change in neurological status, which is a late sign of significant dehydration. It reflects decreased cerebral perfusion from hypovolemia. This is a critical finding that warrants urgent follow-up.
A nurse is caring for a school-age child.
For each body system below, click to specify the statement the nurse should include in the teaching. Choose the most likely response for the dropdown(s) in the table below by choosing from the lists of options.
|
Body system |
Potential Teachings |
|
Gastrointestinal |
dropdown
|
|
Dental |
dropdown
|
|
Hematological |
dropdown
|
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Give iron with vitamin C to increase absorption: Vitamin C enhances the solubility and bioavailability of iron, which is especially important for a child on a vegetarian diet where non-heme iron predominates. Taking iron with citrus juice or ascorbic acid reduces the risk of poor absorption and supports correction of anemia.
• Give iron through a straw to prevent staining of teeth: Liquid iron supplements can cause temporary discoloration of tooth enamel. Using a straw minimizes direct contact of iron with the teeth, helping to preserve dental appearance while ensuring the child still receives the full dose.
• Increase intake of iron-rich foods such as beans, leafy greens, and fortified cereals: A vegetarian child should be encouraged to consume a variety of non-heme iron foods. Combining these with vitamin C sources improves absorption and supports bone marrow production of healthy red blood cells.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Give iron with milk to reduce stomach upset: Milk contains calcium and casein, both of which inhibit iron absorption, reducing the effectiveness of therapy.
• Administer iron on an empty stomach with no fluids: Iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach, but giving it without fluids increases gastric irritation and may cause poor adherence in children.
• Encourage brushing with baking soda after iron administration: Baking soda is abrasive and not recommended for children, as it may damage developing enamel while not significantly reducing iron staining.
• Mix iron with milk to reduce metallic taste: Mixing with milk impairs absorption, worsening anemia, and undermines the therapeutic purpose of supplementation.
• Restrict protein sources to avoid overworking bone marrow: Protein is essential for hemoglobin synthesis and red blood cell production; restricting it would worsen the child’s anemic state.
• Reduce iron-containing foods until medication is completed: Limiting dietary iron would prevent recovery from anemia and contradicts the goal of maximizing iron intake during supplementation.
A nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who has cellulitis of the left lower calf.
The nurse is assessing the adolescent 24 hr after the initial visit. How should the nurse interpret the findings?
For each finding, click to specify whether the finding is an indication of potential improvement or an indication of potential worsening condition. There must be at least 1 selection in every row. There does not need to be a selection in every column.
Explanation
Rationale:
• Weight-bearing ability on the affected leg: The adolescent was able to ambulate in the hall twice with good tolerance, which suggests improved mobility despite persistent tenderness. This indicates that pain and function are gradually improving.
• Temperature: The fever decreased from 38.8°C on Day 1 to 37.6°C on Day 2, showing resolution of the systemic response to infection. This suggests the antibiotic therapy is beginning to take effect.
• WBC count: The count rose from 14,000/mm³ to 15,000/mm³ in 24 hours, which reflects a persistent or worsening inflammatory and infectious process. This indicates the infection may not yet be under control.
• Wound assessment: The indurated area on the calf decreased in size from 6 x 6 cm on Day 1 to 5 x 5 cm on Day 2. A decrease in the size of the inflamed area indicates that the cellulitis is responding to treatment and resolving.
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