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HIV/AIDS

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Total Questions : 23

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Question 1:

A nurse is educating a group of individuals about HIV transmission. Which of the following modes of transmission is the main route for HIV to be passed from an infected person to an uninfected person?

A. Sharing injection equipment. B. Mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy. C. Unprotected sexual intercourse. D. Occupational exposure to infected blood. E. Blood transfusion from an infected donor.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Sharing injection equipment can transmit HIV, but it is not the main route of transmission. This mode of transmission is more associated with other blood-borne infections like Hepatitis B and C.

Choice B:

Mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding can transmit HIV, but it is not the main route of transmission in the general population.

Choice C:

Unprotected sexual intercourse is the main route for HIV transmission in the general population. Sexual contact with an infected person without using barrier methods like condoms can facilitate the spread of the virus.

Choice D:

Occupational exposure to infected blood is a potential mode of transmission for healthcare workers, but it is not the main route of transmission for the general population.

Choice E:

Blood transfusion from an infected donor was a significant mode of HIV transmission in the past, but extensive screening of blood donations has made this mode of transmission extremely rare.

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Question 2:

A nurse is providing instructions on HIV prevention strategies. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include for harm reduction in individuals who inject drugs?

A. Abstinence from drug use. B. Needle exchange programs. C. Condom use during sexual intercourse. D. Laws and policies to reduce stigma. E. Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for sexual partners.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Abstinence from drug use is an ideal approach, but it may not be practical for individuals struggling with addiction. Harm reduction strategies aim to reduce the negative consequences of drug use while acknowledging that complete abstinence may not be immediately achievable for everyone.

Choice B:

Needle exchange programs are effective harm reduction strategies for individuals who inject drugs. These programs provide clean needles and syringes, reducing the risk of HIV transmission through contaminated needles.

Choice C:

Condom use during sexual intercourse is important for preventing sexually transmitted infections, including HIV. However, this choice specifically asks about harm reduction strategies for individuals who inject drugs.

Choice D:

Laws and policies to reduce stigma are essential for promoting understanding and compassion towards individuals living with HIV. However, this choice does not directly address harm reduction strategies for drug injection.

Choice E:

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for sexual partners can be effective in preventing HIV transmission, but it is not directly related to harm reduction for individuals who inject drugs. PrEP is a preventive measure for those at risk of contracting HIV through sexual activity.

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Question 3:

A nurse is counseling a newly diagnosed HIV-positive client. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the disease?

A. "HIV is a bacterial infection that can be treated with antibiotics.” B. "HIV attacks and destroys the cells responsible for my immune system.” C. "HIV can only be transmitted through unprotected sexual intercourse.” D. "I can rely on herbal remedies to cure HIV without taking medications.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

HIV is not a bacterial infection but a viral infection caused by the human immunodeficiency virus. It cannot be treated with antibiotics, as antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections.

Choice B:

This statement is correct. HIV attacks and destroys the CD4+ T cells, which are crucial for maintaining the immune system. As the virus replicates and damages these cells, the body becomes more susceptible to infections and other illnesses.

Choice C:

This statement is incorrect. HIV can be transmitted through various means, including unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing needles, mother-to-child during childbirth or breastfeeding, and blood transfusions with infected blood.

Choice D:

This statement is incorrect. There is no cure for HIV, and relying solely on herbal remedies without taking antiretroviral medications would be ineffective and dangerous. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is the standard treatment for managing HIV and preventing its progression to AIDS.

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Question 4:

A client asks the nurse about HIV testing options. Which statement made by the nurse is accurate?

A. "HIV testing is only recommended for high-risk individuals.” B. "Testing should be done without informed consent or counseling.” C. "Antibody tests are the most reliable tests for early diagnosis.” D. "Nucleic acid tests (NAT) are used to detect antibodies against HIV.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

HIV testing is recommended for everyone, regardless of risk factors. It is essential to identify HIV infections early, as early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent further transmission.

Choice B:

This statement is incorrect and unethical. Informed consent and counseling are crucial before HIV testing to ensure individuals are aware of the implications of the test and the disease.

Choice C:

This statement is accurate. Antibody tests are the most common and reliable tests used for the diagnosis of HIV infection. These tests detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to the HIV virus.

Choice D:

Nucleic acid tests (NAT) are not used to detect antibodies against HIV. Instead, NAT is used for early detection of the virus itself, not antibodies, and is typically employed in specific situations like testing donated blood or for early diagnosis during the window period before antibodies develop.

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Question 5:

A nurse is teaching a community group about HIV subtypes. Which statement about HIV-1 and HIV-2 is correct?

A. HIV-1 is more prevalent in West Africa and has a slower progression to AIDS. B. HIV-2 is more virulent and commonly found in the US. D. The most common HIV-1 subtype worldwide is B, and the most common subtype in the US is

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This statement is correct. HIV-1 is more prevalent in West Africa and has a slower progression to AIDS compared to HIV-2.

Choice B:

This statement is incorrect. HIV-2 is actually less virulent than HIV-1, and it is more commonly found in West Africa and certain parts of Asia.

Choice D:

This statement is incorrect. The most common HIV-1 subtype worldwide is group M, specifically subtype C, which is predominant in sub-Saharan Africa and parts of Asia. The most common subtype in the US is subtype B.

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Question 6:

Which of the following statements about HIV is accurate?

A. "HIV is an acute infection that resolves without treatment.” B. "ART is a curative treatment for HIV.” C. "HIV testing is unnecessary if there are no visible symptoms.” D. "HIV is transmitted through contact with infected body fluids.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This statement is inaccurate. HIV is not an acute infection that resolves without treatment. It is a chronic condition that persists in the body, and without treatment, it can progress to AIDS, which can be life-threatening.

Choice B:

This statement is also inaccurate. While Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) is highly effective in controlling HIV and improving the quality of life for people living with the virus, it is not a curative treatment. HIV remains in the body, and stopping ART can lead to viral rebound.

Choice C:

This statement is incorrect. HIV testing is essential, even in the absence of visible symptoms. Many individuals with HIV may not show any symptoms for years, but early detection through testing allows for timely intervention and better disease management.

Choice D:

This is the correct statement. HIV is primarily transmitted through contact with infected body fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. Common modes of transmission include unprotected sexual intercourse, sharing of contaminated needles, and from mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding.

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Question 7:

A client asks the nurse about HIV prevention measures. Which option provides biomedical interventions for HIV prevention?

A. "Consistent and correct use of condoms.” B. "Abstinence from sexual activity.” C. "Sharing injection equipment with trusted partners.” D. "Taking PrEP before engaging in sexual activity.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Consistent and correct use of condoms is an essential biomedical intervention for HIV prevention. When used consistently and properly, condoms act as a barrier to prevent the transmission of HIV during sexual intercourse.

Choice B:

Abstinence from sexual activity is an important behavioral approach to prevent HIV transmission. However, the question specifically asks for biomedical interventions, which involve the use of medical or pharmaceutical methods.

Choice C:

Sharing injection equipment with trusted partners is a risky behavior that can lead to HIV transmission. It is not a biomedical intervention but rather an unsafe practice.

Choice D:

Taking Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) is an effective biomedical intervention for HIV prevention. PrEP involves taking antiretroviral medications before potential exposure to HIV to reduce the risk of infection in high-risk individuals.

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Question 8:

Select all the factors that can influence the susceptibility of a person to HIV infection:.

A. A person's age. B. Circumcision status of the male partner. C. Having a high viral load. D. Genetic factors. E. Being female.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A person's age can influence susceptibility to HIV infection. Younger individuals may engage in riskier behaviors or may have incomplete sex education, making them more vulnerable to HIV transmission.

Choice B:

Circumcision status of the male partner can impact susceptibility. Circumcision has been associated with a reduced risk of HIV transmission during heterosexual intercourse.

Choice C:

Having a high viral load in an HIV-positive individual increases the risk of transmitting the virus to others.

Choice D:

Genetic factors can play a role in determining a person's susceptibility to HIV infection. Certain genetic variations may affect the immune response to the virus.

Choice E:

Being female can influence susceptibility to HIV infection due to biological and social factors. Women may have a higher risk of infection during unprotected heterosexual intercourse. Additionally, gender disparities in access to healthcare and prevention resources can also contribute to higher vulnerability.

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Question 9:

A nurse is assessing a client who recently had a high-risk exposure to HIV. The nurse understands that during which stage of HIV infection is the viral load often associated with a high viral load and a low CD4 count?

A. Acute primary infection. B. Asymptomatic stage. C. Symptomatic stage. D. AIDS.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The acute primary infection is the initial phase of HIV infection and occurs shortly after exposure. During this stage, the viral load may be high, but the CD4 count is usually not significantly affected yet.

Choice B:

The asymptomatic stage follows the acute primary infection and is characterized by no symptoms or mild symptoms. The viral load and CD4 count may be stable or slowly changing during this stage.

Choice C:

The symptomatic stage is the next phase of HIV infection, also known as the early symptomatic or clinical latency stage. During this stage, the viral load is often associated with a high viral load and a low CD4 count. The immune system is weakened, and the individual may experience various HIV-related symptoms.

Choice D:

AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is susceptible to various opportunistic infections and certain cancers. While the viral load remains high, the CD4 count is significantly low.

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Question 10:

A nurse is providing education to a group of clients about the stages of HIV infection. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when discussing the asymptomatic stage? Select all that apply:.

A. It is characterized by no symptoms or mild symptoms. B. It is associated with a gradual decline in CD4 count and a gradual increase in viral load. C. It is often undetected unless tested for HIV antibodies or antigens. D. It is also called acute retroviral syndrome (ARS) or seroconversion illness. E. It lasts for up to 10-15 years without treatment.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The asymptomatic stage is characterized by no symptoms or mild symptoms. Many individuals with HIV may not be aware of their infection during this stage as they may not experience any obvious signs of illness.

Choice B:

This statement is incorrect. The asymptomatic stage may see relatively stable CD4 counts and viral loads, rather than a gradual decline in CD4 count and a gradual increase in viral load.

Choice C:

During the asymptomatic stage, the viral load may remain at detectable levels, but the individual may not have any symptoms. Regular HIV testing is crucial to detect the infection during this stage.

Choice D:

Acute retroviral syndrome (ARS) or seroconversion illness occurs during the acute primary infection, not the asymptomatic stage.

Choice E:

Without treatment, the asymptomatic stage can last for up to 10-15 years. However, the duration can vary widely from person to person.

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Question 11:

A nurse is caring for a client with advanced HIV disease. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further education about the opportunistic infections that define AIDS?

A. "Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, lungs, or esophagus is one of the opportunistic infections.” B. "Kaposi's sarcoma is an opportunistic infection that can define AIDS.” C. "Encephalopathy, HIV-related, is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS.” D. "I can discontinue my antiretroviral therapy once the CD4 count is below 200 cells/uL.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This statement is correct. Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, lungs, or esophagus is one of the opportunistic infections associated with advanced HIV disease and AIDS.

Choice B:

This statement is correct. Kaposi's sarcoma is another opportunistic infection commonly associated with AIDS.

Choice C:

This statement is correct. Encephalopathy, HIV-related, is an opportunistic infection that can define AIDS.

Choice D:

This statement is incorrect. Antiretroviral therapy is a lifelong treatment for HIV infection, and its discontinuation should not be based solely on the CD4 count falling below 200 cells/uL. The client needs further education on the importance of continuous treatment to manage HIV effectively and prevent opportunistic infections.

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Question 12:

A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic tests used for HIV infection with a client. The nurse explains that nucleic acid tests (NAT) have the shortest window period after exposure, detecting HIV infection as early as:.

A. 3-12 weeks. B. 2-6 weeks. C. 10-33 days. D. 6 months.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Nucleic acid tests (NAT) are highly sensitive tests that can detect HIV infection early, but the window period stated (3-12 weeks) is not accurate. NAT can detect HIV RNA as early as 9-11 days after exposure, but it may take up to 2-6 weeks for it to be reliably detected.

Choice B:

This is the correct answer. Nucleic acid tests (NAT) can detect HIV infection as early as 2-6 weeks after exposure, making it the option with the shortest window period.

Choice C:

This option is incorrect. NAT can detect HIV infection earlier than the time range stated (10-33 days)

Choice D:

This option is incorrect. NAT can detect HIV infection much earlier than 6 months after exposure.

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Question 13:

A nurse is assessing a client's understanding of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for HIV infection. The nurse evaluates that teaching has been effective if the client states that the goal of ART is to:.

A. Increase CD4 count to normal levels. B. Reduce viral load to undetectable levels. C. Prevent opportunistic infections and cancers. D. Adhere to the prescribed regimen and schedule.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) can help increase CD4 count, but the primary goal of ART is to suppress viral replication and reduce viral load to undetectable levels, thereby preserving immune function.

Choice B:

This is the correct answer. The goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is to reduce viral load to undetectable levels, which helps in preventing disease progression and transmission of HIV.

Choice C:

Preventing opportunistic infections and cancers is an important benefit of ART, but the primary goal is to suppress viral replication.

Choice D:

Adherence to the prescribed regimen and schedule is crucial for the effectiveness of ART, but it is not the primary goal of ART itself.

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Question 14:

A client with HIV infection asks the nurse about the different classes of antiretroviral drugs used for treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further education?

A. "Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) block the enzyme integrase that inserts HIV DNA into the host cell genome.” B. "Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) block the entry of HIV into the host cell by interfering with the binding of the virus to the cell surface receptors or co-receptors.” C. "Protease inhibitors (PIs) block the enzyme protease that cleaves HIV proteins into functional units.” D. "Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) block the enzyme reverse transcriptase that converts HIV RNA into DNA.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The client's statement about Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) is accurate. INSTIs block the enzyme integrase, preventing the insertion of HIV DNA into the host cell genome.

Choice B:

This is the correct answer. The client's statement about Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) is incorrect. NNRTIs work by directly binding to reverse transcriptase, blocking its activity, and preventing HIV replication.

Choice C:

The client's statement about Protease inhibitors (PIs) is accurate. PIs block the enzyme protease, inhibiting the cleavage of HIV proteins and preventing the formation of mature viral particles.

Choice D:

The client's statement about Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) is accurate. NRTIs are incorporated into the growing viral DNA chain, leading to chain termination and preventing further viral replication.

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Question 15:

A nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV infection and starting antiretroviral therapy (ART) Which of the following factors should the nurse consider when selecting the appropriate ART regimen for the client? Select all that apply:.

A. Drug efficacy, safety, and tolerability. B. CD4 count and viral load. C. Availability of point-of-care testing. D. The patient's preferences and preferences. E. The number of opportunistic infections present.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The nurse should consider drug efficacy, safety, and tolerability when selecting the appropriate ART regimen for the client. Different ART drugs have varying efficacy in suppressing viral replication, potential side effects, and interactions with other medications. This consideration helps ensure the chosen regimen is effective and well-tolerated by the client.

Choice B:

CD4 count and viral load are essential factors to consider when starting ART. The CD4 count reflects the client's immune status, and the viral load indicates the level of HIV replication. These parameters help gauge disease progression and monitor the response to therapy over time.

Choice C:

Choice D:

The patient's preferences and lifestyle should be taken into account when selecting an ART regimen. Some medications may require strict adherence schedules or specific food restrictions, and considering the patient's preferences can enhance treatment adherence and overall outcomes.

Choice E:

The number of opportunistic infections present is an important consideration when starting ART. Opportunistic infections are more likely to occur in individuals with low CD4 counts and can affect the choice of ART drugs and the need for prophylactic treatments.

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Question 16:

A nurse is providing education to a group of clients with HIV infection about the goals of antiretroviral therapy (ART) Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply:.

A. "ART aims to reduce viral load to undetectable levels.” B. "The primary goal of ART is to prevent opportunistic infections and cancers.” C. "ART can cure HIV infection and eliminate the virus from the body.” D. "Improvement in CD4 count is not a significant goal of ART.” E. "ART can reduce the risk of transmission to others.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

ART aims to reduce viral load to undetectable levels. When the viral load is undetectable, the risk of disease progression and transmission to others is significantly reduced.

Choice B:

The primary goal of ART is to prevent opportunistic infections and cancers. By suppressing viral replication and boosting the immune system (measured by CD4 count improvement), ART helps prevent these severe complications of HIV infection.

Choice C:

Choice D:

Improvement in CD4 count is a significant goal of ART. CD4 count reflects the health of the immune system, and increasing it is essential for better immune function and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections.

Choice E:

ART can reduce the risk of transmission to others. When viral load is undetectable, the risk of transmitting HIV to sexual partners or through shared needles is greatly reduced.

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Question 17:

A nurse is assessing a patient with HIV/AIDS. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the nursing assessment?

A. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of opportunistic infections. B. Assessing the patient's emotional and social well-being. C. Providing counseling, feedback, and reinforcement for medication adherence. D. Educating the patient about HIV/AIDS transmission modes. .

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Monitoring for signs and symptoms of opportunistic infections should be a priority during the nursing assessment of a patient with HIV/AIDS. Opportunistic infections are common in individuals with compromised immune systems due to low CD4 counts, and early detection allows prompt intervention and improved outcomes. Assessing emotional and social well-being (

Choice B:

Assessing emotional and social well-being (Choice B) is important but may not be the highest priority in the initial assessment, as addressing immediate health risks takes precedence.

Choice C:

Providing counseling, feedback, and reinforcement for medication adherence (Choice C) is essential for long-term management but should not overshadow the immediate need to monitor for opportunistic infections.

Choice D:

Educating the patient about HIV/AIDS transmission modes (Choice D) is crucial, but it can be addressed during the patient's hospital stay or subsequent visits, while the assessment for opportunistic infections requires immediate attention to ensure timely treatment.

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Question 18:

(Select all that apply) A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving nursing interventions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the patient's care plan?

A. Assisting the client with medication administration and refills. B. Educating the client about safe sex practices and personal hygiene. C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics or antifungals as prescribed. D. Encouraging the client to express their feelings and concerns. E. Performing male circumcision to reduce the risk of HIV transmission.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Assisting the client with medication administration and refills is crucial in managing HIV/AIDS. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is vital for controlling the viral load and preventing the progression of the disease. By helping the client with medication administration and refills, the nurse ensures that the client follows the prescribed treatment plan consistently.

Choice B:

Educating the client about safe sex practices and personal hygiene is essential in preventing the transmission of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) Providing information about condom use, practicing abstinence or mutual monogamy, and maintaining good personal hygiene can significantly reduce the risk of spreading the virus.

Choice C:

Administering prophylactic antibiotics or antifungals as prescribed is important in managing opportunistic infections that can arise in individuals with weakened immune systems due to HIV/AIDS. Prophylactic treatment helps prevent these infections or reduces their severity.

Choice D:

Encouraging the client to express their feelings and concerns is essential for providing psychosocial support. Living with HIV/AIDS can be emotionally challenging, and allowing the client to share their emotions helps them cope with the disease, reduces stress, and enhances overall well-being.

Choice E:

Performing male circumcision is not a nursing intervention for a client with HIV/AIDS. While male circumcision has shown to reduce the risk of HIV transmission in some studies, it is not a primary nursing intervention for managing HIV/AIDS.

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Question 19:

A nurse is providing education to a patient with HIV/AIDS. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding HIV prevention?

A. "You should avoid getting tested for HIV regularly.” B. "Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is used after HIV exposure.” C. "Using condoms consistently and correctly during sexual intercourse can reduce the risk of HIV transmission.” D. "Supervised injection facilities aim to increase risky behaviors among drug users.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

"You should avoid getting tested for HIV regularly." This statement is incorrect and potentially harmful. Regular HIV testing is essential for early detection and timely initiation of treatment if needed. Early diagnosis improves health outcomes and reduces the risk of transmitting the virus to others.

Choice B:

"Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is used after HIV exposure." This statement is incorrect. PrEP is taken before potential HIV exposure to prevent infection. It involves taking antiretroviral medications regularly to reduce the risk of acquiring the virus.

Choice C:

"Using condoms consistently and correctly during sexual intercourse can reduce the risk of HIV transmission." This statement is accurate and supported by scientific evidence. Condoms act as a barrier method and are effective in preventing the exchange of bodily fluids, thus reducing the likelihood of HIV transmission during sexual activity.

Choice D:

"Supervised injection facilities aim to increase risky behaviors among drug users." This statement is incorrect. Supervised injection facilities provide a safe and controlled environment for drug users to consume drugs under medical supervision, reducing the risk of overdose and the transmission of infectious diseases like HIV and hepatitis C.

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Question 20:

A client with HIV/AIDS asks the nurse about biomedical interventions to reduce the risk of infection. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

A. "Male circumcision can increase the risk of HIV acquisition.” B. "Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is used before HIV exposure.” C. "Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to increase viral replication.” D. "Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is used after HIV exposure.”

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

"Male circumcision can increase the risk of HIV acquisition." This statement is incorrect. Male circumcision has been shown to reduce the risk of HIV transmission in heterosexual men in some studies. However, it does not increase the risk of HIV acquisition.

Choice B:

"Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is used before HIV exposure." This statement is incorrect. PEP is a short-term treatment initiated after potential exposure to HIV to prevent infection. It involves taking antiretroviral medications for 28 days following a possible exposure.

Choice C:

"Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is used to increase viral replication." This statement is incorrect. ART is used to suppress viral replication in individuals with HIV/AIDS, reducing the viral load and improving immune function. It is the cornerstone of HIV treatment, not a measure to increase viral replication.

Choice D:

"Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is used after HIV exposure." This statement is correct. PrEP is a biomedical intervention used before potential exposure to HIV to prevent infection. It involves taking antiretroviral medications regularly to reduce the risk of acquiring the virus.

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Question 21:

A nurse is evaluating the outcomes of a patient's care for HIV/AIDS. Which action should the nurse take during the evaluation process?

A. Compare the patient's outcomes with the goals and expected outcomes. B. Modify the plan of care based on the patient's history and physical examination. C. Collect data about the patient's laboratory tests, psychosocial status, and educational needs. D. Provide counseling, feedback, and reinforcement for adherence to medication.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The evaluation process involves comparing the patient's achieved outcomes with the established goals and expected outcomes of care. By doing this, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the care provided and identify areas where adjustments may be necessary to improve patient outcomes.

Choice B:

Modifying the plan of care based on the patient's history and physical examination is a part of the assessment and planning phases, not the evaluation phase. Evaluation focuses on measuring the success of the implemented care plan.

Choice C:

Collecting data about the patient's laboratory tests, psychosocial status, and educational needs is crucial during the assessment phase to gather information for developing an appropriate care plan. While this information is valuable throughout the patient's care, it is not specific to the evaluation process.

Choice D:

Providing counseling, feedback, and reinforcement for adherence to medication is an essential nursing intervention during the implementation phase. Although it supports patient compliance with treatment, it is not the primary focus of the evaluation process.

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Question 22:

A patient with HIV asks the nurse about strategies to minimize the negative consequences of drug use. Which intervention should the nurse recommend?

A. Needle exchange programs. B. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) C. Infection prevention education. D. Male circumcision.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Needle exchange programs are essential in minimizing the negative consequences of drug use, especially for patients with HIV. These programs provide clean needles and syringes, reducing the risk of transmitting the virus through contaminated equipment.

Choice B:

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is not relevant to this situation. PEP is a preventive treatment given after potential exposure to HIV, not a strategy to minimize the consequences of ongoing drug use.

Choice C:

Infection prevention education is crucial for patients with HIV who engage in drug use. Educating them about safe practices and harm reduction strategies can help reduce the risk of spreading infections and improve overall health outcomes.

Choice D:

Male circumcision has been shown to reduce the risk of HIV transmission in heterosexual men. However, it is not a strategy to minimize the negative consequences of drug use, and its relevance is not applicable to this question.

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Question 23:

A nurse is caring for a patient with HIV who is on antiretroviral therapy (ART) Which outcome should the nurse expect from this treatment?

A. An increase in viral replication. B. Prevention of opportunistic infections. C. A reduction in risky behaviors. D. Promotion of human rights protection.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

An increase in viral replication is not an expected outcome of antiretroviral therapy. The goal of ART is to suppress viral replication and reduce the viral load in the patient's body.

Choice B:

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a standard treatment for patients with HIV. The primary goal of ART is to suppress viral replication, leading to increased CD4 cell count and improved immune function. As a result, patients on ART experience a reduced risk of developing opportunistic infections.

Choice C:

While antiretroviral therapy can lead to behavioral changes that may reduce risky behaviors, it is not the primary outcome or purpose of this treatment. The main focus is on viral suppression and immune restoration.

Choice D:

Antiretroviral therapy does not directly promote human rights protection. However, access to appropriate medical care, including ART, is considered a human right for individuals with HIV/AIDS.

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